Is there any particular reason Persia is theocracy (as opposed to despotic monarchy), other than the fact modern Iran is theocracy?
Safavids werent any more theocratic than their contemporary muslim monarchies. Or even christian ones, for that matter.
Doesn't Persia being theocracy results in them having no dynasty or heirs mechanic, AND make their Shah being called Ayatollah?
Safavids werent any more theocratic than their contemporary muslim monarchies. Or even christian ones, for that matter.
Doesn't Persia being theocracy results in them having no dynasty or heirs mechanic, AND make their Shah being called Ayatollah?