Sun_Zi_36 said:
anyway, IMO, at least theres no reason why you cannot say the technology in the Far East during that period (a few centuries earlier) is superior to europe.
i fact i think the middle east should also start off slightly higher than europe.
actually the idea was not just to have Mongol 5 and China 4 for land tech, but a general increase in the far east, such as Korea 4, Japan 2, Dai Viet 2, Chagatai 2, the rest of far east except east indies around 1. That is of course more because "it was really the case" than for any other reason.
I certainly do not agree with this. To me the tech level is about doctrine, and I don't think there is any convincing evidence one way or the other about who was more advanced. As such I think it makes sense to let sleeping dogs lie. Small tech differences aren't possible at the low techs because the base costs are so very high.
Norrefeldt said:
Training should be reflected in Quality (an advanced state can have low quality troops), doctrine should be reflected, and is accorcing to the names of the levels, to tech.
And I've never said anything about training, just that the Mongols had very effective doctrine
Jinnai said:
Sun Zi:
I can;t remember offhand either, though i do remember you mentioning it as well as several times you and others mentioning there were cannons on some of Zheng He's ships. Also the japanese used gunpowder with simple rockets, basically for the same manner as light artillery.
And I'm almost certain that nothing was discussed about how this affected doctrine. Fine, so Zheng He had cannons on his ships. What did he do with them? I know very well what da Gama did with his cannons - he set about using his military efficiency to dominate sea trade in the Indian Ocean. Having cannon means nothing - the Europeans had had cannons since the 1300's but hadn't figured out how to use them effectively.
Norrefeldt said:
IMO we should first firmly establish a tech lead, either by sources of by a overwhelming majority here. Then we can start tweaking tech level advances. But then we have to look at the entire period. Raising Far Eastern techs and slowing their advance might lead to a good result 16th c, but will it still be correct in the beginning of 19th c?
How is that even possible? And why does it matter whether the techs were "really" higher or lower? What matters is the relative techs of countries that are likely to fight one another. If we start with a gradiant for East to west we are encouraging Middle Eastern Countries to conquer European ones, Indian countries to conquer Middle Eastern ones, and SE Asian countries to conquer Indian ones. Why?
Norrefeldt said:
I'm not the one asking for a change and the burden of proof are on the proposers for a change.
And this is the rub. There has been absolutely no proof presented at all. Not a shred. For the Mongols this is not such a bad thing. We know that they can't really fight anyone except the Manchus and the Chinese, and it is reasonable to expect that their higher tech won't cause them to do anything too ahistorical. We know that China will get to tech 5 quite quickly, so the neighbour bonus is definitely not a big deal. It still ought to be shown that giving them this tech doesn't mess things up royally, but it isn't such a radical change.
For a China that starts at tech 4 there are no such restraints. China can readily fight a large number of countries, and is pretty much guaranteed to be driving the neighbour bonus for the entire China tech group. Where is the proof that jumping them 3 tech levels won't cause all sort of problems?
If you believe that this won't mess up the game entirely you need to run some tests and prove it. This is what the 'burden of proof' means.
Sun_Zi_36 said:
well, if you dont trust the several people who are saying that they have heard discussions about it in various places and there is general agreement or those who are actually advocating it themselves (e.g. MKJ, myself, doktarr, Jinnai are the ones i can think of off the top of my head), then you need to wait until someone unbury the discussion and the proof given in those threads. it's not as if nobody has asked about the change before or no proposers of change has ever discussed this with anyone. it's the fact that the proposers of changed have already discussed the topic in various threads ages ago and you want us to unbury the proof for you.
Which is entirely irrelevent. People who want to cite old discussions to justify changing something ought to be able to dig up those discussions themselves. Old discussions should always be subject to revision, and the argument that "the discussion is out there, several us remember it, so you need to go find it" is, to say the least, unwelcoming to people who haven't been around here forever, or who don't spend the ridiculous amount of time on this forum that some of us do. And it's quite besides the point, the burden of proof remains on those who want to change a system that works reasonably well right now. This change has indeed been discussed before, and I, for one have consistently opposed it before.