Such ignorance I barely know where to begin... Right,
Franks, were one of the german tribes. As were anglo-saxons.
Correct on both accounts; that doesn't mean Franks are the same as French. Nor does it make France as Germanic country. Else Italy (Lombards) and Spain (Visigoths/Franks) would be Germanic countries too. And by extension of the latter, so Latin America would be Germanic too. But Latin America is not called Latin America because it is Germanic, quite the opposite in fact.
I see litte difference between french and german, both are quite gibberish to me.
By that logic I could claim Arabic and Chinese are probably closely related as I understand absolutely nothing of either.
The language difference is not realy big.
If you hadn't just said that "both are quite gibberish to [you]", you might have been a bit more credible... If you actually understood either of those languages, you would see that they are far from as similar as you think.
Also, what do you mean, by term LATIN language anyway?
"Latin languages" (also referred to as a Romance or Romanic language), are languages based on Latin, as opposed to Germanic languages which are based on proto-Germanic, for instance. The two groups are probably about as closely related as either group are to Slavic. So if you claim German and French are almost the same, I could claim German and Polish are almost the same, and be equally (in)correct. Typical Latin languages would be Spanish, French, Italian, Portuguese and Romanian; typical Germanic languages are German, Dutch, the Scandinavian languages and English (yes, English is very much a Germanic language contrary to the belief of some).
So just because you think two languages are similar because you don't understand either, it doesn't mean they are...
The RUS were just rulling class, which propably did influenced the language of russians, but the people they rulled, were slavs. In case of franks, it was more that franks invaded and settled france, rather than just become the rulling class. So it is totaly different case.
What? Are you suggesting the Franks took over France, threw out the population that existed and settled it with people from Germany? The Franks took over France, and became rulers of the local population, which was predominantly Gallo-Roman. So it is not a totally different case.