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Before your artisans make goods worth 20, china´s artisans make goods worth 100. The chinese can buy goods worth 40. Your own market demands goods worth 20, which is saturated by your own production. Your artisans sell 100% of their stuff. Now china joins your market: Your overall prouction rose to 120, overall demand is at 60 - your contry´s artisans suddenly can only sell half their products internally and part of the rest gets dumped, as it cant sell on the world market.

Just curious how the game chooses the POP to buy from if spheres are involved: Does it even distinguish between sphereling's and sphere-master's POPs? Jazumir's post suggests it does. [I.e. 'number of one country's artisans actually selling goods' = 'number of country's artisans' * 'overall demand' / 'overall production']
Or are both countries' POPs added together and after this the selling POPs are randomly chosen from the overall number of POPs. [I.e. we'd have a probability instead of absolute numbers now, probably leading to higher market fluctuation.]
 
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Judging from people's responses, I assume GP's market structure is as the same as it was in vanilla, that is, all their products are directly pushed into common market. Then there is a logic fault here. Why SP can retain at most half of their products in local market, while GP can retain none? If GP's ruling party favours Free Trade, it may make sense. If it prefers Protectionism, however, there is no point.

I'd suggest tying GP's tariff slider to its market share. If the slider is set at zero or negtive, GP pushes all their products into common market, thus allow its pops and factories to buy goods from their own and their spherelings indiscriminatingly. If the slider is set at a positive x%, GP retains x% of their products in local market, satisfying local needs first. I hope it gets implemented in a future patch.
 
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Unfortunately, you can't kick countries out of your own sphere. Why not is beyond me.
You can use my mod to kick countries out of sphere.
 
Just curious how the game chooses the POP to buy from if spheres are involved: Does it even distinguish between sphereling's and sphere-master's POPs? Jazumir's post suggests it does. [I.e. 'number of one country's artisans actually selling goods' = 'number of country's artisans' * 'overall demand' / 'overall production']
Or are both countries' POPs added together and after this the selling POPs are randomly chosen from the overall number of POPs. [I.e. we'd have a probability instead of absolute numbers now, probably leading to higher market fluctuation.]

The common market thing suggests, that it buys from everybody equally, i´d say.
 
Judging from people's responses, I assume GP's market structure is as the same as it was in vanilla, that is, all their products are directly pushed into common market. Then there is a logic fault here. Why SP can retain at most half of their products in local market, while GP can retain none? If GP's ruling party favours Free Trade, it may make sense. If it prefers Protectionism, however, there is no point.

I'd suggest tying GP's tariff slider to its market share. If the slider is set at zero or negtive, GP pushes all their products into common market, thus allow its pops and factories to buy goods from their own and their spherelings indiscriminatingly. If the slider is set at a positive x%, GP retains x% of their products in local market, satisfying local needs first. I hope it gets implemented in a future patch.

Tarifs do not apply to your common market, AFAIK. The master gets first dibs though. So it can not only retain all the goods it produces and wants to buy, but also all of the rest, restricted only by the civ/sec-rules (75%/50%).

Wait - i think i didnt get what you meant there. You dont like that a sphere master cant control wether it buys internally (on the domestic market) rather than from the common market, right?