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jimbox321

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Jun 6, 2014
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A thread to post all the full map screenshots we have seen so far

County Map
CK2 County Map.jpg
Duchy Map
CK3 Duchy Map.jpg
Kingdom Map
CK3 Kingdom Map.jpg
Empire Map
CK3 Empire Map.jpg
1066 start date
CK3 1066 Start Updated.png
1066 culture map
CK3 1066 Culture Map.jpg
Updated 1066 start date map to the map shown in the new DD as some changes were made.
 

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  • CK3 1066 Start.png
    CK3 1066 Start.png
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Thank you very much for this! Looks really handy, even if the resolution is blurry in some places (I'm presuming because they're screenshots).
 
So there's no Portuguese culture? *triggered*

(I bet it forms from Galician provinces if a Kingdom of Portugal exists)
 
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What? Flanders has French culture? Clearly Paradox never heard about the Battle of the Golden Spurs. Flanders was as Dutch as Brabant and Holland. In fact Flanders, Brabant and Holland set the norm for Dutch (in that order). Flanders being majority Francophone, except for some southern bits, is just plain wrong.

(PS as a Dutch Brabantian I find the current division between 'Flemish' and 'Hollandic' artificial)
 
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I like how Bosnian culture is in 1066 start date, even though I'm not so sure they should be.
But for Bosnian culture to cover more territory than both Croatian and Serbian ones?
Something is a bit off there...
 
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So there's no Portuguese culture? *triggered*

(I bet it forms from Galician provinces if a Kingdom of Portugal exists)
that would make no sense, both portuguese and galician are equidistant from old Portuguese (galaicoportugues) in short there shouldn't be a separate "Galician" or "Portuguese" in the games time frame since the two only got truly destinc in the 1800's, I'll be honest seeing has the game will use the term Asturleonese for the astuarian and leoneses, they should use the term "Galicoportuguese" and anglicization of Galaicoportugues one of the terms used to refer to old Portuguese
 
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Whait, what's up with Normandy in the Kingdom Map mode? Same with that one dutchy between Lithuania and the White Rus? Signs of de jure drift? Or can a Dutchy now be part of two de jure territories?
 
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What? Flanders has French culture? Clearly Paradox never heard about the Battle of the Golden Spurs. Flanders was as Dutch as Brabant and Holland. In fact Flanders, Brabant and Holland set the norm for Dutch (in that order). Flanders being majority Francophone, except for some southern bits, is just plain wrong.

(PS as a Dutch Brabantian I find the current division between 'Flemish' and 'Hollandic' artificial)
As a Dutch, I agree that for CKIII there should be no flemish/hollandic division. The culture split happend after the reformation in the 17th century when the North was free and the South was not.
 
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Couple thoughs:
  • Songhay is a snake-kingdom.
  • Anbiya has two non-consecutive parts
  • Arabian kingdom could be divided into Hejaz and Oman (so Arabia is only empire-tier)
  • Andalusian kingdom could be divided into Cordoba and Toledo (so Andalusia would be Arabic-owned Hispania)
  • Sapmi kindom could be in entirety replaced with wasteland (entire area maybe had population of single Irish county).
  • Iceland could be made it's own kingdom (on account of it's distance from Norway proper, and the fact that Norway took over only centuries after latest startdate).
  • Empires of Siberia, Mongolia, Tartaria, Turan - we can safely drop at lest one of those. Whole region was historically known as Tartary.
  • Four tiny kingdoms north of Mongolia could be probably merged into one.
  • Serbia could get Vidin, and that single-county Duchy that is inexplicably Hungarian (giving latter to Croatia would also make more sense)
  • Replace kingdom of Pomerania with Polabia (most of post-WWII East Germany), Pomeralia could go to Poland.
  • Split kingdom of Germany into Saxony and Franconia, they were as distinct as Bavaria.
 
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Serbia could get Vidin, and that single-county Duchy that is inexplicably Hungarian (giving latter to Croatia would also make more sense)
De-jure map of Serbia looks like Serbian Despotate, which existed in the 15th century.
1024px-Serbian_Despotate_%281422%29-en.svg.png

I would rather cut away Duchy of Macva from Serbia and add Duchy of Zachumlia to it. Just to better represent historical borders.
Or even better, make Bosnia a 2-Duchy Kingdom, giving it Duchies of Bosnia and Zachumlia. Then we could keep Macva or perhaps add Vidin.

Balkans_1265.jpg


Migration_of_Serbs.png


Serb_lands_in_the_9th_century_%28en%29.png


1280px-Kingdom_of_Serbia_at_the_end_of_the_XIII_century_and_early_fourteenth_A.svg.png


Serbia_under_Stefan_Nemanja_and_Stefan_the_First-Crowned.jpg
 
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As a Dutch, I agree that for CKIII there should be no flemish/hollandic division. The culture split happend after the reformation in the 17th century when the North was free and the South was not.

Liguistically speaking, Frisia isn't Franconian so Flanders shouldn't be part of it, altho I don't know why they decided to include it in the French culture.
 
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Thank you for posting this.

1066 culture map
I see North-Eastern Caucasus is now Cuman, instead of being settled by Alans, like it was in the CKII 1066 start. Which actually looks even weirder and less historically accurate, thus making gameplay for Caucasus-related states even less accurate. I think they should finally introduce some broad culture like Dagestani in EU4 to this region in this game.

Lack of certain cultures and religions in Caucasus area makes gameplay for Caucasic states like Alans much easier than it should be, in reality it must be one of the most hardcore experiences, same level of difficulty like reviving Zoroastrianism in Persia and restoring Sassanian Empire. If they'd add Adyghe culture inhabiting Black Sea coast of Caucasus, which is currently Alan, it'd be even better. In reality Alans of that period inhabited area from what is now modern Krasnodar krai almost to the borders of the Dagestan republic, this is where ruins of their settlements are being found, they never had direct access to the sea. This is one of the reasons why they were constantly dependent either on Khazars, or on Byzantines, and it was not fully shown in CKII.
 
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that would make no sense, both portuguese and galician are equidistant from old Portuguese (galaicoportugues) in short there shouldn't be a separate "Galician" or "Portuguese" in the games time frame since the two only got truly destinc in the 1800's, I'll be honest seeing has the game will use the term Asturleonese for the astuarian and leoneses, they should use the term "Galicoportuguese" and anglicization of Galaicoportugues one of the terms used to refer to old Portuguese

That's the language, and I would argue Portuguese got distinct from Galician as early as the XIV century. In the game, cultures represent "proto-national identities", how much people identify with their neighbors or not. The way how Portuguese culture emerges within a Kingdom of Portugal represent the creation of this new identity.
 
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Liguistically speaking, Frisia isn't Franconian so Flanders shouldn't be part of it, altho I don't know why they decided to include it in the French culture.
The Language Border between Romance and Germanic hasn’t changed much since 1066. Places like Gent and Brugge were as Low Franconian/Low Frankish as Brabant (current Walloon Brabant always was the traditional Romance speaking part of Brabant). Now some southern parts of the county of Flanders were Romance speaking (the area of Lille and Tournai).
Dutch developed from Low Franconian/Low Frankish, not Frisian, which is a different language. During the Middle Ages it did eventually replace Frisian in the Low Countries north of the Rhine and Meuse (in most areas).
 
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Whait, what's up with Normandy in the Kingdom Map mode? Same with that one dutchy between Lithuania and the White Rus? Signs of de jure drift? Or can a Dutchy now be part of two de jure territories?
The kingdom map does look like some de jure drift happened already Egypt also looks a bit too far east.
 
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The kingdom map does look like some de jure drift happened already Egypt also looks a bit too far east.

Indeed, it would make more sense if the Duchy of Shammar would be part of the de jure Kingdom of Arabia, instead of Egypt.
 
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The Language Border between Romance and Germanic hasn’t changed much since 1066. Places like Gent and Brugge were as Low Franconian/Low Frankish as Brabant (current Walloon Brabant always was the traditional Romance speaking part of Brabant). Now some southern parts of the county of Flanders were Romance speaking (the area of Lille and Tournai).
Dutch developed from Low Franconian/Low Frankish, not Frisian, which is a different language. During the Middle Ages it did eventually replace Frisian in the Low Countries north of the Rhine and Meuse (in most areas).

Ok, you're right, but the thing is that the only culture native to the Netherlands in this game is Frisian, not Dutch. That's why I said that Flemish shouldn't be included in this culture (while the people arguing that the divide is artifical believe the opposite I guess), because it's Franconian. I've never said that Flemish was Frisian, that would go against my point.
 
Ok, you're right, but the thing is that the only culture native to the Netherlands in this game is Frisian, not Dutch. That's why I said that Flemish shouldn't be included in this culture (while the people arguing that the divide is artifical believe the opposite I guess), because it's Franconian. I've never said that Flemish was Frisian, that would go against my point.

And that is not historical. Prior to the 800s the Netherlands was part of Magna Frisia, a large polity strecthing from Ost-Friesland to the Zwin estuary. Even though the Frisian language definitely prospered in this area, it is unsure to what geographical extent is was spoken in this area. But it is safe to say that as the Frankish Empire expanded in the late 800s the Frisian language was pushed back to its core areas in Friesland and supplanted by Low Franconian, basically Old Dutch. To accurately respresent language in the Netherlands there should be two cultures represented: Dutch (or its early medieval equivalent, Low Franconian) and Frisian. If only one culture can be present in the area, I would opt for Dutch, since it would occupy a much larger area during the time period than Frisian.

Also in CK II terms Franconian (note: not Low Franconian) is a subculture of German and a screenshot of the 1066 culture map shows that it occupies much of Belgium. That is not correct, unless it is meant to respresent early Dutch and the associated dialects in the Lower Rhine area of western Germany (i.e. Kleverlands).
 
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