Again with my Khazar examples, after the First Arab-Khazar war the Ummayads and Khazars had a royal marriage to bring around peace.
The only thing I read about the subject was the wikipedia page:
"The 737 campaign marked the end of large-scale warfare between the two powers, establishing Derbent as the northernmost Muslim outpost and securing Muslim dominance over Transcaucasia. At the same time, the long wars weakened the Umayyad army and contributed to the eventual fall of the dynasty a few years later. Relations between the Muslims of the Caucasus and the Khazars remained largely peaceful thereafter, apart from two Khazar raids in the 760s and in 799, each resulting from FAILED EFFORTS to secure a marriage alliance between the Arab governors of the Caucasus and the Khazar khagan. Occasional warfare continued in the region between the Khazars and the local Muslim principalities of the Caucasus until the collapse of the Khazar state in the late 10th century, but the great wars of the 8th century were never repeated."
It mentions a failed atempt, so if a marriage between one of the governors and the khazar khagan indeed took place, there's still the question about who was involved in the marriage, by that I mean if the woman was from the khazars or the arabs. Considering that the arabs had superior strength at the same I find hard to believe that they would give a muslim woman in marriage to them.
"From the time of the Umayyad conquest of Hispania and throughout the Reconquista, Spanish royals married Muslim Umayyad princesses, to seal trade treaties between Christian kings and muslim caliphs. Through these marriages, such as that of Alfonso VI of León and Castile and Zaida of Seville, it is believed that most Europrean royalty can trace their ancestry back to the family of the prophet Muhammad, though this remains controversial."
"The marriages of Ottoman sultans and their sons in the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries tended to be with members of the ruling dynasties of neighboring powers. With little regard for religion, the sultans contracted marriages with both Christians and Muslims; the purpose of these royal intermarriages were purely tactical. The Christian Byzantines and Serbians, as well as the Muslim beyliks of Germiyan, Saruhan, Karaman and Dulkadir were all potential enemies and marriage was seen as a way of securing alliances with them. Marriage with foreign dynasties seems to have ceased in 1504, with the last marriage of a sultan being that of Murad II and Mara Branković, daughter of the Serbian ruler Đurađ Branković, in 1435."
Richard proposed his sister to marry Saladin's brother. Byzantium Kamenos married daughters to Muslims.
So while I agree that Muslim women married Christians less frequently, but those marriages existed. Especially when Muslims felt threatened by Christians.
First, like I said in my post, there would be no problem for muslim men, like the Ottoman sultans and princes, and Saladin's brother to marry a christian woman, it's allowed.
Second, the example of Zaida is not relevant here because:
A) she was a refugee, she was not in a muslim court
B) it is debatable if she married Alfonso or was just his mistress
C) she converted to catholicism and adopted the name of Isabel
All of these are already possible with the current game mechanics.
And last, I never said marriages between muslim women and non muslim men never happened but they were rare and mostly ocurred like you said when muslims feared christians, so if these interreligious marriages were implemented they should be restricted to these situations and also carry a huge prestige and piety loss to muslim rulers because it would mean to his vassals and other muslim rulers, that this ruler is so weak and impious he's willing to give his daughter or sister to concubinage to save himself.
A zealous muslim ruler would rather die than give a muslim woman to a non muslim man, and whereas a cynical man might not have a personal problem he would still care what his vassals and subjects would think of him.
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