Hi there,
I have been asking a few people about something concerning CKII which is puzzling me. What it concerns is the change in law by the ruler of a particular region. The main point in question is that, once a law is changed, it will affect the vassals negatively or positively. I have no problem with this. However, what I am wondering why, say, a levy change that was raised in 1066 would still be problem for vassals 400 years down the line. Surely, by this point the vassal - and their liege - would view the law change as normal or at least not have as much of a problem with it as their predecessors did initially. I am just wondering what the community thinks of this and would be grateful if someone could point out if I was missing something.
If you do believe what I am saying is valid, I'd appreciate if you wouldn't mind sharing how to make the opinion of vassals towards you shift slowly back to neutral.
Thank you in advance,
Pickup
I have been asking a few people about something concerning CKII which is puzzling me. What it concerns is the change in law by the ruler of a particular region. The main point in question is that, once a law is changed, it will affect the vassals negatively or positively. I have no problem with this. However, what I am wondering why, say, a levy change that was raised in 1066 would still be problem for vassals 400 years down the line. Surely, by this point the vassal - and their liege - would view the law change as normal or at least not have as much of a problem with it as their predecessors did initially. I am just wondering what the community thinks of this and would be grateful if someone could point out if I was missing something.
If you do believe what I am saying is valid, I'd appreciate if you wouldn't mind sharing how to make the opinion of vassals towards you shift slowly back to neutral.
Thank you in advance,
Pickup