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Dark Knight

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Historically it was probably very unusual. Land was though granted or gifted to noblemen thus becoming landed lords during the medievals. But, in post-1492 I can't recall even one occasion where a country gave away land as gifts. However, wedding gifts is another matter. One english king, Matthew have to help me with which one, married a portugese princess receiving an Indian city as wedding gift.

Bombay was part of the dowry brought by Catherine of Braganza to Charles II in 1662.
 

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Greven : 'However, at the moment, I cannot think of any historical example of the time period where a province was given away without a war, a royal inheritence or an abandonment by the original power (the owner didn't care enough about the territory to claim it). Any historians out there to help me out?'

I've got one other example of provinces given as a gift. But maybe it can be said to be only an abandonment, as you said before.

In 1492-1493, Charles VIII of France wanted to be free of any english, austrian or spanish intervention in France while he intervened in Italia to claim for the Napoli crown. So he gave back Franche-Comté and Artois to Maximilian of Habsburgs, and Roussillon to Ferdinand of Aragon. These provinces had been conquered under his father Louis XI. But Spain and Habsburgs never really accepted this previous conquest.

Actually, it was not a pure gift. He received 2 things in exchange : officially gold and bristle gifts, unofficially Maximilian had to abandon his claim on Britanny. Maximilian could have claimed because of his short marriage with Anne of Britanny (now married to Charles VIII). With England, Charles VIII bought neutrality with money only. And of course, he expected Austria, Spain and England to stay neutral during his military intervention in the Peninsula. But I'm not sure this last thing was written in the treaties ; that may explain why Spain didn't stay neutral.

Best regards

Raphaël
 

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well, it's about an old message by marcujm on this forum, about Venice. I was a bit amazed to find the Medici were from Venitian descent. I had always thought they were Florentine. But then, maybe the originated from Venice. I'd be happy to know more ! What is this Brugge family marcusjm mentions ?

Talking about big merchant families, how do loans work ? Do you borrow from other countries ? Or are there private bankers (which was historically often the case - with Lombard and Rhenan bankers)? Can you choose ? Do you negotiate interest rates and stuff ?
 

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Originally posted by Greven on 06-11-2000 09:56 PM
Originally posted by Pole on 06-11-2000 07:19 PM
That's a good question. Can someone answer that one?

However, at the moment, I cannot think of any historical example of the time period where a province was given away without a war, a royal inheritence or an abandonment by the original power (the owner didn't care enough about the territory to claim it). Any historians out there to help me out?
 

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Yes Medici were based in Florens, I was partially wrong but Venice was a merchant power and many of these families prospered on this.

As for Brugge(r?) I think it was a German merchant family with business in this region.

Someone could freshen my memory, it was over 10 years ago when I was in school :).

Marcus
 

Doomdark

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As for Brugge(r?) I think it was a German merchant family with business in this region.

As far as I know, Brugge is just a city in Belgium. Perhaps you're thinking about Fugger, which was an extremely rich German banker family.

/Doomie
 

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Originally posted by Marc Hameleers on 06-20-2000 04:49 PM
Doomie, you're on target. Fugger is the Family, Brugge is the belgian city. If youever come to europe, and are near Brugge, it is worth a visit!!!

The Dutch Guy

Aye, I agree as well. By the way, the name of the city of Brugge in Spanish is Brujas, which also means 'witches'. I imagine the soldiers of the Spanish armies stationed there during the 16th and 17th centuries did not have a very good opinion about the women from Brugge! :)

Martin