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xyzt44

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Prince Harald of Denmark, count of slesvig, is listed as voting in the HRE law changes. But his liege is the King of Sweden. Is this a bug or WAD?
 

Lornalt

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Is Slesvig? (is that the right name?) Part of the De Jure Kingdom of Germany? if so even if your not a vassel of the HRE you are allowed to vote in matters of laws
 

unmerged(227356)

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If he becomes the king, does Denmark become part of the HRE?

Edit: Stupid question, it said that his liege was the King of Sweden. Still, I'm curious; if a count had the HRE as his liege, would his kingdom become part of the HRE on his ascension?
 

lol887

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I don't see any reason why this can't be right. In this time period a person could teoretically be King of Denmark, but still be a vassal to the King of England if he owned lands in the English realm. This could happen if the King of Denmark married a daughter of a English duke, and then his son then became both King of Denmark and Duke of that english region. If that happened, i seems reasonable that the region would still remain under the English crown, and thus the King of Denmark becomes a vassal of the King of England. But only in the Danish Kings english lands.

If he becomes the king, does Denmark become part of the HRE?
?
I don't think so, Schleswig Holstein would be part of the HRE, but not the Kingdom of Denmark. This because, even though the Danish King ruled over the Schleswig Holstein, it was not a part of the Kingdom of Denmark. A modern paralell is the British Queen, who rules over the whole commonwealth, but the commonwealth nations are still seperate sovereign countries.
 
Last edited:

Alerias

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Is Slesvig? (is that the right name?) Part of the De Jure Kingdom of Germany? if so even if your not a vassel of the HRE you are allowed to vote in matters of laws

Thats wrong actually. Anyone within the de jure borders gets a vote, so thanks to Holstein he gets to vote.

As King of Sicily I could vote when Byzantium strengthened its crown laws as well.