What are we defining as an empire here? There isn't really a set definition. The word has different meanings in different parts of the world.
- 3
Like I said before Persia is often called the first empire, while Egypt may actually have predated it as a centralized state, it is from Persia, via Alexander that the west inherited it's ideas of how a centralized empire functions. Rome very much modelled itself on the enemies it fought, first the Carthaginians then the Persians.
What are we defining as an empire here? There isn't really a set definition. The word has different meanings in different parts of the world.
Ok, so "empire" defined through "kingdoms". What's "kingdom"?Empire in this discussion is just a name for a political entity large enough to encompass multiple kingdoms.
I'm not playing this game (=.Ok, so "empire" defined through "kingdoms". What's "kingdom"?
![]()
I'm not playing this game (=.
In game it's mechanics. IRL its about prestige, A Spanish emperor was mentioned here, reality is - there is no clear cut definitions. We can talk about administrative forms all day long and yet please remember the discussion is about the Jurisdictions not about who or what we call an empire. Caliphate at the CM start is a great example of a tituar empire. Essencially a powerful king declaring himself emperor and trying to cement this status via force of arms and authority of church.
But he's right. I mean, what is a kingdom? What's the difference between a big kingdom and an empire?
Problem is your system calls for too many controversities. Too many optional rules, with all kinds of 'ifs' and 'buts', to create a ruleset for a system where was not really some kind of hard ruleset in reallity (AFAIK).
Going back to the original topic, I think the only accurate representation of the northernmost part of Scandinavia is no representation. That is, to not have the territory as provinces at all, just a "desert". And yes, impassable to armies, because the whole scenario of a Viking Age army marching through the northern part of Scandinavia to cross from Sweden to Finland is preposterous; never would have happened.
But if it has to be in the game as provinces, then they should probably all be one-holding provinces (not just Finnmark) and sure, have them as a fictional Kingdom of Sápmi I guess. Don't see a big problem with it. It's also convenient to a player who creates a Scandinavian Empire, because it makes a lot of sense (to me at least) to have all that crappy northern territory under one king.
Poland was also a HRE vassal before it was elevated to a kingdom - said elevation was also what validated their independence.Barbarossa established imperial hegemony over Poland (Hence why Hitler called his push east operation Barbarossa). Quite if that means that Poland was in the empire and a vassal is unclear, the emperors probably thought so. The Polish probably considered it more along the lines of paying the emperor tribute.
Actually that's wrong, there have been kingdoms to hold that area at least in the sagas, Hålogaland at it's greatest extent encompassed northern norway and what is now the kingdom of sapmi. I'm not sure anyone bothered to tell the Sami though.Going back to the original topic, I think the only accurate representation of the northernmost part of Scandinavia is no representation. That is, to not have the territory as provinces at all, just a "desert". And yes, impassable to armies, because the whole scenario of a Viking Age army marching through the northern part of Scandinavia to cross from Sweden to Finland is preposterous; never would have happened.
But if it has to be in the game as provinces, then they should probably all be one-holding provinces (not just Finnmark) and sure, have them as a fictional Kingdom of Sápmi I guess. Don't see a big problem with it. It's also convenient to a player who creates a Scandinavian Empire, because it makes a lot of sense (to me at least) to have all that crappy northern territory under one king.
Oh yeah I had forgotten about that.Poland was also a HRE vassal before it was elevated to a kingdom - said elevation was also what validated their independence.
Okay, so what about the non-Christian world? A Persian empire is definitely non-Roman (and even has pre-Roman precedent), but definitely existed long enough to be a de jure empire. Arabia's the still-existing Islamic empire as started by Mohammed, as I recall. India's had one or two lasting empires within recent history of the game, with at least one kicking around as a rump state in 769.
It's been argued so many times in seriousness that I kinda missed the jokingness.It was a joke mocking the premise of the OP.
Eh there was another emperor after Charlemagne, Louise the Pious. Charlemagne's one surviving son. After him the imperial crown would usually pass to the son who inherited Italy.
"During this period, Frederick decided conflicting claims to various bishoprics, asserted imperial authority over Bohemia, Poland, and Hungary"
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frede...d_Fourth_Italian_Campaigns:_1158.E2.80.931174
And actually the diffrence between tributary and vassal is not a clear one. If a tributary is not a vassal then all the ancient empires were in fact not empires, Babylon, Assyria and many of the early egyptian kingdoms, had no linking threads beside tributary agreements. The idea of law code common through and empire or a state religion are much later phenomenon. Either the later egyptian empires (Who had state religion) or Cyrus' Persia (Who had common laws) are the first real empires that is anything more than a series of tributary agreements. If Barbarossa could install a leader in Poland and extract tribute from them then he held more power over them than any king before Cyrus has outside his own city.
It's not entirely correct to speak of Poland as a vassal of the HRE during the pinnacle of Hohenstaufen power, but neither is it entirely wrong.
It all nice that you disagree with me but I have given you a source take it or leave it. Also you don't appear to have read most of my last post. These things are not binary.Barbarossa didn't actually install a leader in Poland. The sons of Wladyslaw the Exile regained their father's hereditary lands in Silesia, but Boleslaw the Curly remained as the supreme Prince of Poland. At most, this seems like a compromise.
Also, if installing rulers on foreign thrones counts as vassalization, then Poland of Boleslaw the Brave and Boleslaw the Bold had Kievan Rus' and Hungary as vassals. Heck, even the game doesn't count equal installing claimants with vassalizing them, except in limited number of circumstances.
So what? According to you if the Empire broke it wasn't an Empire. And Charlemagne's eventually broke to gavelkind.Eh there was another emperor after Charlemagne, Louise the Pious. Charlemagne's one surviving son. After him the imperial crown would usually pass to the son who inherited Italy.
But AI norse/germanic? They are almost literally non existant. They don't expand at all, they are never strong enough to do a county conquest (let alone invasions), i've seen them form sweden ONE time, and NEVER have i seen them form an empire. The few lucky times they get a ruler young enough to try and unify the local region, it's only up to the point of having enough land but not enough money/piety to create the title. And BAM. Elective gavelkind hits and makes them return to the beginning. In what way are they strong??