No, no underestimate as the casualties for Barbarossa/both sides have been posted here. Its difficult to find something more looking like a shooting range for Germany than Barbarossa, well maybe Citadell... 
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In fairness to the axis though, who should expect that? It is staggering when you think of it. The Germans inflicted 4 million casualties and yet failed.
It makes sense because the missing piece of intelligence is when you mistaken your own assumptions as proof the enemy will fail when reality is different since the evidence is not so cut and dry. So, the prevailing assumption within the ranks of chain of command was obviously mistaken as clearly the intelligence was not nearly good enough on the Axis side and was one of the chief negatives of the whole conflict.
The russian army during Barbarossa was not really "creme de la creme" ... Now i am being very tactful...![]()
I mean, reading through this thread and not knowing a thing about WW2 one might be forgiven for assuming that Germany didn't actually face an opposing army but simply faltered due to poor planning, not ferocious military opposition on a scale and intensity that they had not expected even in their worst case scenarios.
Saying that the red army go through Barbarossa intact, is also quite a remarkable statement considering the losses.
The Russian losses of over;
4 000 000 soldiers, 21 200 aircraft and 20 500 tanks vs the German/Axis losses of
800 000 soldiers, 2 827 aircraft and 2 400 tanks.
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Operation_Barbarossa)
I have always wondered what the so called "Soviets won due to more men" argument was actually coming from. I mean, Grossdeutschland in 1941 would have had roughly the same amount of people under its control, if not more than 1941 Soviet Union? Why couldn't Germany likewise match the Soviets in terms of raw recruitment numbers.
I have always wondered what the so called "Soviets won due to more men" argument was actually coming from. I mean, Grossdeutschland in 1941 would have had roughly the same amount of people under its control, if not more than 1941 Soviet Union? Why couldn't Germany likewise match the Soviets in terms of raw recruitment numbers.
At the end of 1941, Moscow had ~110 million people living in the territory it controlled. Germany had 80+ million Germans, plus Romania (12 million), plus Hungary (9 million), plus Finland (3.5 million), plus Italy (43 million), plus Slovakia (4 million), plus industrial support of France (40 million), Boghemia (5 million), Low countries (17 million). All in all, Axis had more manpower reserves, than USSR did, at the time. Their industry was larger (32 million tons of steel of 3rd Reich in 42 vs 8.5 million of USSR, 350 million tons of coal vs 75 million, etc).
To be fair, a lot went into Kreigsmarine, plus Germans outproduced USSR in some areas, like ammunition. That's one reason Soviet losses were higher.At any rate 80 million Germans vs 110 million Soviets doesn't seem like such a huge gap. Yet Moscow was able to far outproduce their enemies in terms of recruitment.
To be fair, a lot went into Kreigsmarine, plus Germans outproduced USSR in some areas, like ammunition. That's one reason Soviet losses were higher.
To be fair to the Axis though, even to this day people "forget" about the Red Army when discussing Barbarossa. Just look at this thread as overwhelming proof that people don't (and didn't at the time) factor in the opposition nearly enough when discussing military matters, the Red Army during WW2 in particular. It is an absolutely unforgivable flaw in military planning and military intelligence to underestimate or fail to factor in your opponents ability and agency, yet it was what the Wehrmacht did during Barbarossa.
I mean, reading through this thread and not knowing a thing about WW2 one might be forgiven for assuming that Germany didn't actually face an opposing army but simply faltered due to poor planning, not ferocious military opposition on a scale and intensity that they had not expected even in their worst case scenarios.
I have always wondered what the so called "Soviets won due to more men" argument was actually coming from. I mean, Grossdeutschland in 1941 would have had roughly the same amount of people under its control, if not more than 1941 Soviet Union? Why couldn't Germany likewise match the Soviets in terms of raw recruitment numbers.