Why are the higher-tech units now hardly any different to the lower tech units?

[Peanutcat]

The point being that vastly superior mil tech has definitely allowed smaller armies to decimate larger ones. Besides which, I've never seen a 1-stack take out a 50-stack regardless of mil tech level, generals, or any other advantage. That's obviously a huge exaggeration. If a Western 20-stack takes out a Chinese 50-stack with a 5 or 6 mil tech level advantage, I'd say that's entirely plausible.

The thing is though, it isn't an exaggeration. Did you ever play the earlier versions of the game? I conquered all of asia with 1k men in the late game as a European nation.

 

[balmung60]

Wat.

Prior to patch 1.6, westernizing gave western units. After patch 1.6, the pip differential was never greater than 4 and was certainly not huge in the 1650 - 1700 range in Mesoamerica's favor.

I had little trouble with France even after 1800.

I don't remember the exact tech level, but at a certain point in 1.6 and 1.7, at one mid-game tech Mesomerican units did get a huge jump in pips that put them pretty firmly in first place for something like 4 tech levels.

 

[balmung60]

The thing is though, it isn't an exaggeration. Did you ever play the earlier versions of the game? I conquered all of asia with 1k men in the late game as a European nation.

That has to be an exaggeration, simply because 1k men would get instawiped by any 10+ stack.

 

[Crimen]

That has to be an exaggeration, simply because 1k men would get instawiped by any 10+ stack.

1 inf might be a bit of a stretch, but a 2/1/2 army in the early versions of the game could probably have beaten ming in the 18th century.