Forgive me, but I'm going to chop that post into bits just for reading's sake and to address salient points more directly.
It's a good model for CK2, though, and one that still has enough academic backing to be legit. The struggles of the Goths, Franks, Anglo-Saxons, etc. make for good gameplay and allow for a lot of variety in how things turn out, who beats who, where what migrations end up, and so forth. Tilting things in favor of Roman restoration turns that game from one of forging new identities in the churning post-Roman world into a terrified rush to build up before the WRE reappears and non-Roman Western Europe gets chipped away at again and again.
I know that just because something happened historically doesn't mean it
must happen, but it
is what happened and provides a solid model of at least something to work with. Counterfactuals are fun and can be well-researched but are ultimately based upon some degree of conjecture, because by their very definition counterfactuals didn't actually happen.
That Visigoth-Ostrogoth union was based upon old blood ties, though, and clearly wasn't folded into Theodoric's realm-- not neatly, at least. It was a familial affair, Theodoric served as regent and not as king outright of the Visigoths, and the two realms drifted apart again as soon as Theodoric's hand left the tiller. That whole episode is probably one of the most CK2 moments of Gothic history, come to think of it.
Surely that should be an indicator that he was in a subordinate, not equal, position, if the East was so demanding about that sort of thing. Justin didn't bother getting Theodoric's approval before donning the purple, did he? Did the ERE ask Theodoric to approve their nominations? Was the relationship fully reciprocated, or was this one where the Ostrogoths sought out titles and the ERE doled them out to save itself trouble?
The ghost of Anthemius must've been haunting Theodoric during that naval buildup, hah.
That's from the
Variae epistolae, which I recently was told was unreliable because it was reedited in the ERE.
If we're going by Procopius here, then that was after the first shots of the Gothic War had already been fired, and Theodehad seems to have viewed that proposal as a more of a trap than a real deal, considering his alleged fallback deal with Petrus was to just abdicate and get the fuck out of Dodge. That exchange
could be interpreted not as Justinian recognizing a (near-)equal status already present between the two, but rather one which would elevate Theodatus to Justinian's level in exchange for the Goth's surrender (and then probably killing the Goth anyways). Theodehad instead opted to cede the crown altogether in exchange for books and a peaceful estate somewhere, but then reneged when Gothic and Roman troops clashed at Salona and it seemed like he might have a chance at holding off Justinian after all.
Didn't Ricimer get involved in similar deals with the mid-5th century emperors? Heck, Ricimer himself was made consul and married into an imperial family, didn't he? No one seriously considered
him for emperor, though.
When did Theodoric utilize Imperator himself? That Variae I shouldn't cite and you've referenced doesn't use it, and if that document's suspect, then what trustworthy document
does say it? You can cite primary sources with me, man, I'm good for it.
Brown-nosing predates Gilgamesh.
Theodoric had coinage similar to Imperial coinage because what other coinage was it going to look like? It's going to look like Roman coins and imitate Roman styles because the currency that Ostrogoths would've been familiar with was Roman to begin with.
Theodoric-sans-Anastasius just shows how committed he was to maintaining a special relationship with the ERE-- not terribly much. As above with Justinian, the ERE approach to Italy from Odoacer to the Gothic Wars seems to've been to try and woo the rulers with whatever florid titles they wanted, get an agreement in writing of increased ERE influence and then gradually drawing Italy back in. Didn't work that hot, since (as illustrated by your coinage example) Theodoric wasn't interested in a submissive role and later dynastic issues just made things too busy for that sort of arrangement to work out.
But he does use the term 'Rex' alone, which can be just interpreted as 'king' and not 'emperor'--
or was Childeric also claiming to be an emperor?
Fucking hell, this is taking forever to chug through.