Scribble notes addressing some of the statements
(1) On moving the capital
The Tetrarchy agreement of 293, which placed the empire under four emperors, was quite explicit about Rome being the one, united, joint capital of the entire Roman empire, the seat of the Senate and People, source for the authority of all emperors.
The imperial capitals - Trier, Milan, Sirmium and Nicomedia - were really nothing more than an military HQ for an individual emperor, "royal capitals" if you will. The common capital, Rome, was jointly owned by all, which no emperor could claim as his own.
The site of these imperial HQs changed according to military necessity - Trier flipped with Arles for a while, Milan with Ravenna, Sirmium with Thessalonika, Nicomedia with Byzantium.
But ROME never changed. There was no other capital, no other seat of SPQR.
When Constantine "moved", what he moved was his imperial HQ. When he "abandoned" the west, he didn't abandon Rome. He abandoned his HQ in Milan. He left it to assume the HQ of the eastern prefectures he had just conquered, like so many did before. He just didn't like Nicomedia, and decided to build up a new eastern HQ at Byzantium. That's all there's to it. There was merely a different HQ, or "royal city" (as it was frequently called).
Rome was still the capital of the polity. I know not of a single constitution issued by Constantine that suggested it wasn't, or that renounced the one-and-eternal status confirmed in 293 or moved any Roman institution to the east. The Constantinople senate was little more than a municipal council. It did not substitute or even replicate the authority of the Roman Senate, which remained firmly in Rome.
In short: Rome remained the capital. Constantine never moved the capital. He moved his HQ.
(2) SPQR
The source of imperial power was the Senate and People of Rome (SQPR).
Remember, the emperor is not a monarch. Formally, he is nothing other than the "first citizen" of the Republic (and "first magistrate", and "first priest", etc.) Although it is common to divide the republican and imperial period, it is also a bit misleading. The republican institutions, however weak, were never abolished. The republican constitution was judiciously (even if only ceremonially) observed. The Emperor has no other source for his authority than SQPR.
In the preface (Constitutio Deo Auctore, Dec. 530) of the Digest, Justinian refers to the Lex Regia by which the people of Rome invested their powers in the emperors, thus granting imperial decrees the force of law.
"Cum enim lege antiqua, quae regia nuncupabatur, omne ius omnisque potestas populi romani in imperatoriam translata sunt potestatem"
Meaning, without the SPQR as his constitutional basis, the empreror's decree is not law.
(Note: this is the first explicit mention of the Lex Regia and no one is quite sure exactly what he's referring to; but the scholarly consensus (e.g. Prichard & Nasmith, History of Roman Law, p.292) seems to be that Justinian is referring to nothing more spectacular than the lex curiata discussed by Cicero, the ancient investiture of the magistrates of the republic, which, of course, translates into the similar investiture of the emperor as first magistrate. Regardless of whether the choice was made by his predecessors or his soldiers, Emperors at ascension required confirmation by the Senate (people not so much). Even if only ceremonial, the Senate prepared the decree and the thirty lictores symbolically invested the emperor with his powers by enacting the lex curiata.)]
In short, even if he is hanging around Constantinople, the source of his power, SPQR, is ROME, hence his capital is ROME.
(3) Nova Roma
"Nova Roma", as already discussed, was an ecclesiastical innovation, cooked up in 381, nearly a half-century after Constantine's death and only very slowly gained traction in officialdom
BTW, for those interested in the exact wording of Canon 3 the 381 canon:
"The Bishop of Constantinople shall have the prerogative of honor after the Bishop of Rome; because Constantinople is the new Rome"
Or, as the Canon was recorded in 550s (the original was lost):
"Constantinopolitanae civitatis episcopus habeat privilegia honoris post Romanum episcopum, eo quod sit ipsa nova Rome"
Or, in an alternative recording:
"Constintanopolitanus episcopus habeat honoris primatum post Romanum episcopum: propterea quod urbs ips sit junior Roma"
Emperor Justinian I's Corpus Juris Civilis (that is primarily the Code (529, 534), the Digest (533), the Institutes (533) and the Novellae (554)) refers almost uniformly only to Constantinople, with a few superlatives like "our royal capital", "our holy city". Never Nova Roma.
The only place I can where he suggests C-town may be a sort-of-Rome is in a preface to the Digest, where he posits that all cities must follow Rome's example, where he also addends that means not only Rome proper but also Constantinople. (I'll find the exact quote).
(4) Byzantines
Byzantine was most certainly known and used.
Firstly, and most commonly, to denote an inhabitant of the city of Constantinople (which doesn't have a clean demonyn otherwise). For example, from Justinian's Novella 89 (539):
"Sin autem parens naturalis uel Romanus sit uel Byzantius, liceat ei in qua uoluerit metropolitana ciuitate filios suos naturales curiae dare."
(Rough trans: if the father is a Roman or a Byzantine, then he can give his illegitimate children to the officials of that city).
Also, from chap. 2 in
NOVELLAE CONST. 89 another transl.
"aut sub qua villa aut vicus tributa persolvat, aut si quis liber simui et Romanus aut Byzantius fuerit, aut si quis liber simui et alterius cuiuspiam, metropolis tamen." (p.432)
(You will notice that it is in the Greek original, identical: Romaios or Bizantios)
As mentioned before, that demonyn was extended vulgarly to refer to all subjects of that jurisdiction (i.e. the empire ruled from Constantinople). If you don't believe me, how about some evidence from a Byzantine Emperor himself? Take a peek at emperor John VI Kantankuozenos's own History, which he wrote himself in the 1370s, e.g. scroll around here:
John Kantakuozenos's History (1320-1356)
He uses Byzantium, Byzantius, Byzantio, Byzantii APLENTY both in Latin and in Greek (plus uses enough Graecos earlier).
So I don't know where this "Montsqueieu-made-it-up" tale comes from.
(1) On moving the capital
The Tetrarchy agreement of 293, which placed the empire under four emperors, was quite explicit about Rome being the one, united, joint capital of the entire Roman empire, the seat of the Senate and People, source for the authority of all emperors.
The imperial capitals - Trier, Milan, Sirmium and Nicomedia - were really nothing more than an military HQ for an individual emperor, "royal capitals" if you will. The common capital, Rome, was jointly owned by all, which no emperor could claim as his own.
The site of these imperial HQs changed according to military necessity - Trier flipped with Arles for a while, Milan with Ravenna, Sirmium with Thessalonika, Nicomedia with Byzantium.
But ROME never changed. There was no other capital, no other seat of SPQR.
When Constantine "moved", what he moved was his imperial HQ. When he "abandoned" the west, he didn't abandon Rome. He abandoned his HQ in Milan. He left it to assume the HQ of the eastern prefectures he had just conquered, like so many did before. He just didn't like Nicomedia, and decided to build up a new eastern HQ at Byzantium. That's all there's to it. There was merely a different HQ, or "royal city" (as it was frequently called).
Rome was still the capital of the polity. I know not of a single constitution issued by Constantine that suggested it wasn't, or that renounced the one-and-eternal status confirmed in 293 or moved any Roman institution to the east. The Constantinople senate was little more than a municipal council. It did not substitute or even replicate the authority of the Roman Senate, which remained firmly in Rome.
In short: Rome remained the capital. Constantine never moved the capital. He moved his HQ.
(2) SPQR
The source of imperial power was the Senate and People of Rome (SQPR).
Remember, the emperor is not a monarch. Formally, he is nothing other than the "first citizen" of the Republic (and "first magistrate", and "first priest", etc.) Although it is common to divide the republican and imperial period, it is also a bit misleading. The republican institutions, however weak, were never abolished. The republican constitution was judiciously (even if only ceremonially) observed. The Emperor has no other source for his authority than SQPR.
In the preface (Constitutio Deo Auctore, Dec. 530) of the Digest, Justinian refers to the Lex Regia by which the people of Rome invested their powers in the emperors, thus granting imperial decrees the force of law.
"Cum enim lege antiqua, quae regia nuncupabatur, omne ius omnisque potestas populi romani in imperatoriam translata sunt potestatem"
Meaning, without the SPQR as his constitutional basis, the empreror's decree is not law.
(Note: this is the first explicit mention of the Lex Regia and no one is quite sure exactly what he's referring to; but the scholarly consensus (e.g. Prichard & Nasmith, History of Roman Law, p.292) seems to be that Justinian is referring to nothing more spectacular than the lex curiata discussed by Cicero, the ancient investiture of the magistrates of the republic, which, of course, translates into the similar investiture of the emperor as first magistrate. Regardless of whether the choice was made by his predecessors or his soldiers, Emperors at ascension required confirmation by the Senate (people not so much). Even if only ceremonial, the Senate prepared the decree and the thirty lictores symbolically invested the emperor with his powers by enacting the lex curiata.)]
In short, even if he is hanging around Constantinople, the source of his power, SPQR, is ROME, hence his capital is ROME.
(3) Nova Roma
"Nova Roma", as already discussed, was an ecclesiastical innovation, cooked up in 381, nearly a half-century after Constantine's death and only very slowly gained traction in officialdom
BTW, for those interested in the exact wording of Canon 3 the 381 canon:
"The Bishop of Constantinople shall have the prerogative of honor after the Bishop of Rome; because Constantinople is the new Rome"
Or, as the Canon was recorded in 550s (the original was lost):
"Constantinopolitanae civitatis episcopus habeat privilegia honoris post Romanum episcopum, eo quod sit ipsa nova Rome"
Or, in an alternative recording:
"Constintanopolitanus episcopus habeat honoris primatum post Romanum episcopum: propterea quod urbs ips sit junior Roma"
Emperor Justinian I's Corpus Juris Civilis (that is primarily the Code (529, 534), the Digest (533), the Institutes (533) and the Novellae (554)) refers almost uniformly only to Constantinople, with a few superlatives like "our royal capital", "our holy city". Never Nova Roma.
The only place I can where he suggests C-town may be a sort-of-Rome is in a preface to the Digest, where he posits that all cities must follow Rome's example, where he also addends that means not only Rome proper but also Constantinople. (I'll find the exact quote).
(4) Byzantines
Byzantine was most certainly known and used.
Firstly, and most commonly, to denote an inhabitant of the city of Constantinople (which doesn't have a clean demonyn otherwise). For example, from Justinian's Novella 89 (539):
"Sin autem parens naturalis uel Romanus sit uel Byzantius, liceat ei in qua uoluerit metropolitana ciuitate filios suos naturales curiae dare."
(Rough trans: if the father is a Roman or a Byzantine, then he can give his illegitimate children to the officials of that city).
Also, from chap. 2 in
NOVELLAE CONST. 89 another transl.
"aut sub qua villa aut vicus tributa persolvat, aut si quis liber simui et Romanus aut Byzantius fuerit, aut si quis liber simui et alterius cuiuspiam, metropolis tamen." (p.432)
(You will notice that it is in the Greek original, identical: Romaios or Bizantios)
As mentioned before, that demonyn was extended vulgarly to refer to all subjects of that jurisdiction (i.e. the empire ruled from Constantinople). If you don't believe me, how about some evidence from a Byzantine Emperor himself? Take a peek at emperor John VI Kantankuozenos's own History, which he wrote himself in the 1370s, e.g. scroll around here:
John Kantakuozenos's History (1320-1356)
He uses Byzantium, Byzantius, Byzantio, Byzantii APLENTY both in Latin and in Greek (plus uses enough Graecos earlier).
So I don't know where this "Montsqueieu-made-it-up" tale comes from.
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