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Plushie

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Muthsera said:
The SPQR disconnect and the Justinian code raises the question.

Did they really consider themselves as a nationality or just subjects of a ruler?

Well the concept of a 'nation' wasn't really around in what we would consider its modern form, but at least educated Greek speaking subjects of the Roman emperor had some understanding and romantic attachment to their heritage by the 10th century. See: The previously mentioned Alexiad. There was also a fine understanding of ethnic and linguistic groupings.

But mostly you identified first by who your sovereign was.
 

Olaus Petrus

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ForVictory said:
The Byzantines always called themselves the Romans but what did the rest of Europe in there time call them? Greeks?

I read today 12th century English and French chronicles and they called the Byzantine Emperor by title: "Imperator Constantinopolitanus".
 

Kralle18

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I have to side with Plushie. I've read the the Byzantine styled themselves as Romans and called their empire Basileia Rhōmaiōn - "Empire of the Romans" -which was a Greek translation of the latin Imperium Romanum.
During the early Middle Ages the Empire had lost all territories in the Middle East execpt Asia Minor. It was during that time that the Empire was known as the Greek Empire in Europe due to the fact that the empire only retained territories with predominantly Greek populations, except for Bulgaria and Armenia, but the overall majority of the population was Greek at this point.
This is what lead to the Western Europeans calling it the Greek Empire.

The term "Byzantine" was made up in 1557, when German historian Hieronymus Wolf published his work Corpus Historiæ Byzantinæ, a collection of Byzantine sources.

Hellenes was a term used for a non-christian living inside the Roman Empire at the time the Constantine founded Nova Roma.
 

The Yogi

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The Italian region of Romagna (around Ravenna) is called so because it remained in "Roman" hands while the surrounding country had fallen to the Langobards. This to me at least indicates that the inhabitants of VII century Italy referred to the Eastern Empire as "Romans". They probably thought of themselves as Romans too, only under barbarian occupation.
 

joak

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Kralle18 said:
I have to side with Plushie. I've read the the Byzantine styled themselves as Romans and called their empire Basileia Rhōmaiōn - "Empire of the Romans" -which was a Greek translation of the latin Imperium Romanum.
[snip]
Hellenes was a term used for a non-christian living inside the Roman Empire at the time the Constantine founded Nova Roma.

Which returns to my question--are you saying the primaries sources I've read (excerpts of, in translation) that use the word "Hellenes" as a description are badly translated?

Although if I read Plushie correctly, I thought he was saying Hellenes was back in use by Alexiad, not that it was out of favor.
 

Kralle18

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joak said:
Which returns to my question--are you saying the primaries sources I've read (excerpts of, in translation) that use the word "Hellenes" as a description are badly translated?

Although if I read Plushie correctly, I thought he was saying Hellenes was back in use by Alexiad, not that it was out of favor.


As far as I've understood from the book i've read, Hellenes was just used to describe non christians living in the empire.. I don't know more than that..
 

Plushie

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Hellenes had, for a while, a specific connotation of of pre-Christian, pagan Greeks. By the 9th century, however, pretty much all the Hellenic pagans were gone and the term started re-surfacing as an ethnic identity.
 

Tunch Khan

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Plushie said:
Hellenes had, for a while, a specific connotation of of pre-Christian, pagan Greeks. By the 9th century, however, pretty much all the Hellenic pagans were gone and the term started re-surfacing as an ethnic identity.
Do you have any 9th century sources to back this information? Just curious about the timeframe.
 

magritte2

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I was reading an account recently of the trial of either Pope Martin I or Maximus the Confessor (~653 AD) related to the monothelite heresy. I've been reading a pile of stuff lately about that period and I can't recall the source--it might have been Gregorovius. I was struck by the fact that one of the interrogators asked why he "loved Romans and hated Greeks". Unfortunately, I don't have the original source--but I assume that Greek was a translation of Hellene and they were certainly not referring to Greek pagans, so that would imply that a Hellenic ethnic identity had surfaced as early as the 7th century.
 

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magritte2 said:
I was reading an account recently of the trial of either Pope Martin I or Maximus the Confessor (~653 AD) related to the monothelite heresy. I've been reading a pile of stuff lately about that period and I can't recall the source--it might have been Gregorovius. I was struck by the fact that one of the interrogators asked why he "loved Romans and hated Greeks". Unfortunately, I don't have the original source--but I assume that Greek was a translation of Hellene and they were certainly not referring to Greek pagans, so that would imply that a Hellenic ethnic identity had surfaced as early as the 7th century.
That doesn't really clarify the question without the source. Also, it would have helped to read the relevant context to make comments about what the word Greek meant and what was it translated from.
 

magritte2

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Okay, I actually jotted the phrase down in my notes. It was Maximus the Confessor, not Pope Martin

Brown, T.S., 1986, Imperial Administration and Aristocratic Power in Byzantine Italy A.D. 554-800.

Unfortunately, I was flipping through the book in the library and don't have it, so I'm not sure what his source was--I'm not doing academic research, so I wasn't worrying much about proper referencing. It was probably in the chapter on the role of the clergy.
 

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joak said:
Which returns to my question--are you saying the primaries sources I've read (excerpts of, in translation) that use the word "Hellenes" as a description are badly translated?

Although if I read Plushie correctly, I thought he was saying Hellenes was back in use by Alexiad, not that it was out of favor.

From what I've read, the byzantines started to refer to themselves as hellenes (as opposed to latins) as a result of the Crusades (especially the Fourth Crusade)

That said, the latin emperor of Constantinopole called himself "Emperor of the Romans".

Personally I don't think the Byzantines saw a problem with this. They were romans (subjects of the roman emperor) greeks (inheritors of classical Greece) and probably quite a few more things.
 

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Kralle18 said:
Hellenes was a term used for a non-christian living inside the Roman Empire at the time the Constantine founded Nova Roma.

Ok did a little checking back in the 4th & 5th C.

Constantine didn't found "Nova Roma". That name wasn't used then. It was called "Byzantion" and its inhabitants "Byzantines", and that was the name commonly used by its contemporaries. Constantine never used the term "New Rome". At best, he might refer to it off-hand as "Altera Roma" (an alternate, not new or even equal), "Alma Roma" or "Byzantion Roma". But never, ever "Nova Roma".

The official name, given already in 324 (not 330) was "Constantinopolis", in line with the frequent Roman habit of renaming great cities for sitting emperors. That was not the vulgar term, but the official term, found on coins and official documents of the time. (And Byzantium not the only town officially renamed that: Salamis, in Cyprus, was also renamed Constantinopolis, as was an Isaurian burgh. Arles was renamed Constantinion)

The appellation "Nova Roma" popped up only a half-century later in a very different context: namely, as part of a concerted campaign by the archbishop to secure a higher place in the ecclesiastical hierarchy. The first use of the term "Nova Roma" appears in the ecclesiastical Council of Constantinople in 381 (or rather, inserted later into the copies of the canons of the Council, probably 382).

Moreover, even in the canons, "New Rome" is a description, not the name ("Constantinople is the New Rome, thus give our bishop high rank please"). Because the campaign to elevate the bishop in the ecclesiastical hierarchy continued for another few centuries, the archbishop insisted on using the "New Rome" title officially for himself, and only then did it started slipping into other official documents.

[A little background: At the time, the archbishop of Constantinople had decided to try to persuade the Pope to raise him up in the ecclesiastical hierarchy above Antioch, Alexandria and Jerusalem (Constantinople was below them all). Given that he wasn't even a patriarch yet (that would only come in 451), his bid was thoroughly dismissed at the time.

The campaign of the archbishops of Constantinople had to use the "Roman" angle, because the religious angle was missing - namely, the rank of their first bishops and their role in early Christianity as the centers of the apostolic missions. Rome based its primacy on St. Peter & St. Paul, Antioch on St. Peter and Alexandria on St. Mark the Evangelist. These were the historical centers of conversion of West, East and South respectively. Jerusalem wasn't an apostolic center, but, of course, Jerusalem was Jerusalem and deserved special recognition (they cooked up JC's brother St. James for first bishop).

But Byzantium? All they could come up with Peter's little brother, St. Andrew, who wasn't even a bishop there, but just happened to consecrate the bishop who went there.

So there was no way Alexandria, Antioch or Jerusalem were going to give ecclesiastical superiority to this uppity new bishop on the Bosphorus. But the bishops of Constantinople figured they could play on the Pope's vanity, reminding him he was not merely the successor of St. Peter, but also the bishop of Rome, the eternal capital of the Roman polity. And so, by that logic, "since you're eternal Rome and thus number one, then since we're 'new Rome', we should be number two, right?" (or, in some Eastern readings of the canons, "just as equal" in the ecclesiastical hierarchy).

Of course, it didn't fly at the time. Although Easterners now say it did, since the Pope recognized the Council of 381 as ecumenical. But Westerners say this particular canon wasn't part of 381, but only inserted later (in 382 at the earliest), and so wasn't part of what the Pope accepted. But whatever they may argue post facto, it is a fact that the bishop of Constantinople was not recognized by anyone as second in the ecclesiastical hierarchy.

Regardless, the argument, relentlessly repeated, did end up allowing the archbishop of Constantinople to climb up the greasy pole to be given the rank of Patriarch at Chalcedon (451), albeit still below Alexandria and Antioch. And that is how it would remain for the next six hundred years or so.

The 11th C. schism allowed him to call himself what he wanted, but it was only in the Fourth Lateran Council of 1215 (when he was a Latin-rite bishop) that Constantinople finally got bumped up by the Pope.

Finally a little personality note: the introduction of "Nova Roma" argument at the 381/2 councils was not the outcome of a long struggle with the Pope, but a surprise. The reasons may very well have been more personal to do with politics within the Council.

The Council of Constantinople of 381 started off being presided over by the Patriarch of Antioch, but when he died suddenly in the opening weeks, the archbishop of Constantinople tried to take over. But his credentials were challenged by other bishops and he was forced to resign on the spot, not only from the presidency of the council, but also as archbishop.

The guy appointed to replace him mid-council, the new Archbishop Nectarianus of Constantinople, was a complete shock and surprise to the sitting bishops of the eastern empire. Nectarianus was a complete unknown, he wasn't even an ordained priest, just a lowly praetor. Nor was he some sort of imperial favorite; the Emperor didn't know him at all either, he just suggested his name whimsically on the basis of a second-hand personal character recommendation (suggested to him by a local bishop who happened to have bumped into this humble praetor in a country inn while traveling, and found his conversation enjoyable).

Given how the Council, chock full of high and mighty bishops and great theologians (this was at the height of the Cappadocian fathers, after all), had kicked his predecessor around (who was no small beer, but a Cappadocian father himself), what chance did lowly Nectarianus have to maintain his authority over the council or even just hold on to his seat? The bishops made no secret of their disdain and their intention to complain to the Pope about his odd appointment. The precarious little Nectarianus had to assert his importance somehow. Ergo, he cooked up the "Nova Roma" argument then and there, and led the campaign for the next 20 years. (The Pope did question the appointment, but didn't act upon it.)]
end of aside]

So that's where Nova Roma comes from.

And oh, by the way, I also got further confirmation that the term "Byzantines" is not a western invention. It turns out a great part of the Byzantine chroniclers of the early middle ages used it extensively and precisely in that sense. Many used Byzantion exclusively (instead of Constantinople) and massively used "Byzantinos" to refer not only the residents of the city but also all the subjects of the eastern empire (not surprising, since it was plenty common to name countries & their inhabitants after the ruling cities, viz. Portugal, Tripoli, and, of course, Rome itself.)

So, again, with this little foray, I feel confirmed that this whole insistence on Basileos Rhomaoi and Romania stuff is all latter-day revivalism. [A reminder: I don't say they didn't call themselves Romans before, but I reject the contention that they only called themselves Romans, and that "Greeks" and "Byzantines" was somehow a Western insult. It isn't. They used those terms themselves, and aplenty, officially and unofficially. They only got fidgety in the 11th C. and started being insistent upon it afterwards.]
 
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Fornadan

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Abdul Goatherd said:
And oh, by the way, I also got further confirmation that the term "Byzantines" is not a western invention. It turns out a great part of the Byzantine chroniclers of the early middle ages used it extensively and precisely in that sense. Many used Byzantion exclusively (instead of Constantinople) and massively used "Byzantinos" to refer not only the residents of the city but also all the subjects of the eastern empire (not surprising, since it was plenty common to name countries & their inhabitants after the ruling cities, viz. Portugal, Tripoli, and, of course, Rome itself.)
You sure this isn't just another case of writers clinging to archaic terms in emulation of the classical Greek authors?
 

Abdul Goatherd

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Fornadan said:
You sure this isn't just another case of writers clinging to archaic terms in emulation of the classical Greek authors?

I'm not sure. I'm getting this info second-hand from articles. They have references, but I'm not sure who these characters are. While some stick just to Byzantion, others use both terms alternatively, so I'm not sure they're trying to be particularly rigorous. Moreover, the articles goes into a whole bunch of details about the linguistic construction behind the term "Byzantinos" which, from what I gather (from my poor cyrillic reading of the argument), seems like a particularly vulgar "low Greek" contraction, rather than the proper classical Greek term. So it seems it was popularly used.

From what the articles imply, the most common vulgar usage, certainly in the earlier centuries, was either "Byzantion" or "Polis" (not Constantinopolis - too much ink perhaps? :)) You'll see Constantinopolis in official documents, Nova Roma restricted largely to ecclesiastical papers.
 
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Tunch Khan

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Thanks Abdul for the informative entry.
 

motiv-8

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I was wondering what Abdul thinks of this article: http://www.romanity.org/htm/fox.01.en.what_if_anything_is_a_byzantine.01.htm It was referred to me from a similar discussion in another forum where Byzantophiles are rife.

The people who lived in the "Byzantine Empire" never knew nor used the word "Byzantine." They know themselves to be Romans, nothing more and absolutely nothing less. By transferring the Imperial capital from Rome on the Tiber to the New Rome on Bosphorus, dubbed Constantinople, the Emperor Constantine I had transferred the actual identity of Rome to the new location. Long before Constantine I, the idea of "Rome" had become dissociated from the Eternal City on the Tiber. For a Roman meant a Roman citizen, whereever he lived. Before the Imperial period, in 89 BC, a Roman law had granted Roman citizenship to people throughout Italy. Afterwards, citizenship became extended to an increasing number of people in different parts of the Empire. In 212, Emperor Caracalla declared all free persons in the Empire to be Roman citizens, entitled to call themselves Roman, not merely subject to the Romans. Within a few decades, people begin to refer to the entire Empire less often [in Latin] as "Imperium Romanorum" [Domain of the Romans] and more often as "Romania" [Romanland]

I'd really be interested in knowing the articles you used, Abdul.
 

Abdul Goatherd

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motiv-8 said:
I was wondering what Abdul thinks of this article: http://www.romanity.org/htm/fox.01.en.what_if_anything_is_a_byzantine.01.htm It was referred to me from a similar discussion in another forum where Byzantophiles are rife.

I'd really be interested in knowing the articles you used, Abdul.

Hm. OK. I'll dig them out again. I remember one I relied on a bit was:

Demetrius John Georgacas "Names of Constantinople" Transactions and Proceedings of the American Philological Association, Vol. 78, (1947), pp. 347-367

As the for the site, well, I must say its a bit misleading, with a couple of whoppers. Montesquieu invented "Byzantines"?

I took some notes down that I'll be putting up shortly that addresses some of the points.