The Byzantines always called themselves the Romans but what did the rest of Europe in there time call them? Greeks?
Ola, you learn everyday something new here.motiv-8 said:No, the term Byzantine doesn't appear in writing until the mid 16th Century. Muslims referred to them as the Rumi, Romans, while Latins called them the Greeks or some derogatory term.
magritte2 said:It's funny I was just thinking about that, wondering what the people who lived in Rome called their rulers in 650 AD. Of course, the Byzantines called themselves Romans, but it's hard to imagine them being called that by a resident of Latium.
Gil galad said:The Latin west had tendency to call them greeks. A derogatory term. And I think the average person in Latium at that time wouldn't know much about anything which didn't happen in his direct surroundings.![]()
Gil galad said:The Latin west had tendency to call them greeks. A derogatory term. And I think the average person in Latium at that time wouldn't know much about anything which didn't happen in his direct surroundings.![]()
The term was "Greeks". And it was NOT derogatory, but clarifying. "Romans" meant (and still means) inhabitants of the region of Rome.
Plushie said:This is wrong, and especially in the 650 AD period. By the time Constantine founded Nova Roma 'Roman' went from meaning a citizen of an insular, pagan Italic city-state to member of a Christian Empire spanning the Mediterranean Basin, specifically when Caracalla made all inhabitants of the provinces citizens.
The Imperium Romanum (Extent of Roman Power) was used until Heraclius made Greek the administrative language, at which point it became Basileos Romanoi (or something like that, I can't remember the exact spelling), translated meaning something approaching Empire of the Romans (since Basilieus is a translation of the Persian term Shahanshah, but later came to carry the same rough meaning universal rulership as Emperor has today)
It was only after the effects of Yarmuk had fully settled in and, at the dawn of the 8th century, it was incredibly clear that the Byzantines weren't getting the territory they lost to the Arabs back that this changed. It's hard to tell exactly when the West started thinking of the Eastern Empire as more of a Greek Empire than as the descendant of the Roman Empire, but it definitely was clinched with Charlemagne's coronation. But even then Charlemagne sought legitimacy for his Imperial title (and I find it hilarious that in your other post you posit that the HRE has a stronger claim -- a faked document does not a claim make) by trying to marry Irene.
Calling a Greek-speaking subject of the Byzantine emperor 'Hellenes' or the Westernized equivalent WAS meant to be offensive, especially that particular named carried connotations of paganism.
While the HRE in the West struggled to maintain a legitimate claim to the throne of the Romans they did so by occasionally undermining the legitimacy of that of the people who actually still called themselves Romans -- inhabitants of the Byzantine Empire. In fact, Greeks still self-identified as Romans up until the national revival in the early 19th century. The Orthodox millet in the Ottoman Empire was the 'Roman Millet'.
I don't know what else can be used to convince you here, but the Byzantines very much called themselves Romans. So did the West until the beginning of the middle Middle Ages.
Evidence.
I've referenced the documentary evidence I know (I didn't parse through it personally; you'll have to take it up with the author), I don't know what evidence you have he must have overlooked.
But according to him and to the little I have myself seen, they always called them "Greeks", and that was perfectly acceptable to all. The confounding of "Romans" with the easterners only begins with the Crusaders, and even so rather weirdly.
Plushie said:I think you're misunderstanding me, Abdul.
In the West, they occasionally went out of their way to call him 'The Greek Emperor' who ruled over 'The Greek Empire', but in reality he ruled over many people who weren't Greek and who did not speak Greek, and his official title involved being the Roman Emperor.
I'm not disputing that the ethnic-linguistic group of Greeks were still known as Greeks, but rather that the state was Roman and the Latins would occasionally deny this out of vested interest in seeing the HRE as the legitimate successor or continuer of the Roman Empire as opposed to the Byzantine Empire.
motiv-8 said:I have to throw my hat in with Plushie on this one. Looking at the Crusades, for example, there was already a strong tendency to label the Empire as a 'Greek' one, and it was most definitely intended to carry negative connotations -- perfidious, feminine, backstabbing, untrustworthy, oriental. The only thing I haven't been able to figure out is when this kind of descriptive language began -- it would make sense that it would be around the time of the HRE's founding, coincidentally around the time that the Bishop of Rome was asserting more and more independence from the Exarch at Ravenna.