Really interesting discussion, if sometimes needlessly heated.
If this is the case, why did the Norman conquest of England result in an almost universal disenfranchisement of Anglo-Saxon nobles? If culture didn't matter, then this would not have occurred.
Simple political concerns. I don't think culture was as relevant as who sided with whom. If you sided against the Normans, expect your holdings to be confiscated and if you didn't, expect to be rewarded. Honestly, the Norman conquest wasn't turned into a 'nationalistic' struggle until the modern day, when the British were keen to construct grandiose histories for the resilience of their language and ways.
It's what made that BBC program about the history of English so unwatchable for me, the unrelenting, overblown patriotism.
If culture mattered so little, why was there such a strong opposition by the Scots and the Irish to their English invaders/rulers? How would the French have reacted if a Irish or Balkan noble attempted to claim the throne?
No different than if an Occitan or Italian tried to seize it, I would think.
Do you have sources for those claims?
Do you have sources that support your claims of culture playing no part in the era?
No, which is why I asked for some. I didn't request sources because I'm a jackass, I requested them because - I dunno - I actually am keen to read about the topic. Crazy, I know. I'm fairly sure that got across in the rest of that post, which you didn't quote, but I will: "Do you have sources for those claims? I'm interested in this topic, and I'd love to get a look at some modern historical scholarship about this."
The vast majority of your post is as assumptive as mine. You use words like "obviously" and "in my opinion" with little regard for how subjective your assessments are. I don't have a problem with that, I'm interested in your input. Don't try to claim detached objectivity for your thoughts though, it needlessly turns an exchange of informed opinions into a conflict, and makes you sound obstinate, which I'm sure you're not.
You claim multilingualism was the norm but what makes you think so?
"Approximately half of the people in the world are native speakers of more than one language. This means that as children they had regular and and continued exposure to more than one language." - Fromkin, An Introduction to Language (7ed), p374.
This is a linguistic universal, and the percentage would be much higher if the modern West were excluded. We had it in the West as well, though for the most part we lost it during the era of nationalism, when we decided to organise into nation-states. Multilingualism was the norm in the Middle Ages, much as it is still the norm outside the West.
Well since this is about science i think you should accept the task of proving your assumption instead of claiming it is true until others disprove it.
No, since I am not trying to convince anyone of anything. I wrote what I believed, and wanted to read other people's opinions, and if possible hold a bit of an informed debate in the hopes of understanding where others were coming from. This thread has been filled with interesting opinions, some more so than others, but no cogent, well-referenced argument that I found particularly compelling.
I still find the culture system pretty flawed, the idea of a unified "polish" culture in 1066 is pretty farfetched in my opinion. But I have the feeling that its going to be up to the mods to address culture issues, it will probably work fine enough for the purpose of a game so Paradox will leave it be.
All in all, I agree. Alas, I don't think I'll be able to remove cultures from the game entirely, as I'm fairly sure far too many events depend on them, and I don't feel like rewriting the entire game. It's a needless annoyance, though, which imho detracts from the game.