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Hulaoguan

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Originally posted by shrike00
in his book "Carnage and Culture", Victor David Hanson proposes this theory....

He says the explanation for western dominance in world history comes from its democratic underpinnings in ancient Greece. He further ascribes their use of shock tactics, total war, and organization as stemming from this basic tennet of of democracy. This small paragraph is a dramatic simplification of his theory.


This is my first participation in this forum. :)

Just some views:

1) There is preciously little democracy in the western world during it's rise to world dominance,roughly 1600s onwards to the mid 1860s. It can only be a minor factor at most to explain it.

2) There might be a correlation between the Greek adoption of the direct tactics of the phalanx and Greek democracy- the idea that citizens with equal rights stand tightly together in one continuous battleline. The direct tactics of the Greeks did eventually, through the Romans, influence the style of warfare of the western world. ( as opposed to for example China, which was under the influence of Sun Tzu, who is more indirect). However, I also fail to see the correlation between this direct style of warfare and western dominance of the world. It is not as if it conferred any distinct advantage to its user.

I would also not attribute Western dominace of the world not through cultural or climatic factors . Rather, I see the key difference is that for Europe, many independent states exsited and fought one another more or less continuously for hundreds of years. States compete with one another through war, trade and technology. Ideas and people moved across borders quickly.

Through this competition, military technology improved rapidly. To take one example, there is probably little difference between a Ming cannon and a Rennaissance era European cannon in range, reliability and firepower. But by the 18th Century, when many forts in China is still using Ming era 16th C cannons, European cannon technology had advanced by leaps and bonds. There is no way non Europeans nations can match this technological advancement UNLESS they are also exposed to them and ready to adopt them. The American Indians, for example, adopted the horse and firearms, and hence managed to hold off the westerners well into the late 19th Century.
 

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Re: Re: Western Dominance

Originally posted by Hulaoguan
Through this competition, military technology improved rapidly. To take one example, there is probably little difference between a Ming cannon and a Rennaissance era European cannon in range, reliability and firepower. But by the 18th Century, when many forts in China is still using Ming era 16th C cannons, European cannon technology had advanced by leaps and bonds. There is no way non Europeans nations can match this technological advancement UNLESS they are also exposed to them and ready to adopt them. The American Indians, for example, adopted the horse and firearms, and hence managed to hold off the westerners well into the late 19th Century.
I almost entirely disagreed with your post, so welcome:D
When the Portuguese had found India, they were already military superior. Their prime directive for engagement was to keep at maximum fire distance as the other ships couldnt touch them while they could shoot the ships to pieces.
 

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Re: Re: Re: Western Dominance

Originally posted by w_mullender
I almost entirely disagreed with your post, so welcome:D
When the Portuguese had found India, they were already military superior. Their prime directive for engagement was to keep at maximum fire distance as the other ships couldnt touch them while they could shoot the ships to pieces.

But then they didn’t fight the Ming either, I think it’s quite clear that only China perhaps Japan and the Muslim world could match the Europeans in the 15 and 16 centaury.
 

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Re: Re: Western Dominance

Originally posted by Hulaoguan
This is my first participation in this forum. :)

Just some views:

1) There is preciously little democracy in the western world during it's rise to world dominance,roughly 1600s onwards to the mid 1860s. It can only be a minor factor at most to explain it.


You misinterpret Hanson here and take a very narrow definition of democracy. Hanson's concept is not democracy per se but a landowning soldiery that enjoys some form of intellectual freedom with a rule of law that protects their rights and property (which they either have direct or indirect influence over as despotism is absent from all his examples.) Yeoman farmers have been around since the Ancient Greeks and if Hanson is correct in attributing their military efficiency to rule of law and citzenship than you must go back before 1600.

2) There might be a correlation between the Greek adoption of the direct tactics of the phalanx and Greek democracy- the idea that citizens with equal rights stand tightly together in one continuous battleline. The direct tactics of the Greeks did eventually, through the Romans, influence the style of warfare of the western world. ( as opposed to for example China, which was under the influence of Sun Tzu, who is more indirect). However, I also fail to see the correlation between this direct style of warfare and western dominance of the world. It is not as if it conferred any distinct advantage to its user.

Without these tactics, Greece never defeats the mass Persian armies. Without these tactics, Swiss Pikeman have zero reputation and the horse would have remained dominant on European battlefileds. You are correct in that they do not automatically bestow any benefit on an army, but it takes training, discipline, and motivated soldiers for it to work...3 traits that Hanson says are attributable to land-owning citizen farmers. He may exaggerate that these traits do not appear in other armies - indeed the Zulus would appear to have them in abundance - but I think his general gist that these are MORE FREQUNTLY found in land owning soldiery is correct.
 

Hulaoguan

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Re: Re: Re: Western Dominance

Originally posted by Zeppelin
Without these tactics, Greece never defeats the mass Persian armies. Without these tactics, Swiss Pikeman have zero reputation and the horse would have remained dominant on European battlefileds. You are correct in that they do not automatically bestow any benefit on an army, but it takes training, discipline, and motivated soldiers for it to work...3 traits that Hanson says are attributable to land-owning citizen farmers. He may exaggerate that these traits do not appear in other armies - indeed the Zulus would appear to have them in abundance - but I think his general gist that these are MORE FREQUNTLY found in land owning soldiery is correct.

I have not read Hanson's book so I miss the part on the Yeoman farmers/soldiers. I agree that there are certainly more effective than mere peasants, and that non european societies probably had very few landowning Yeomen/soldier.

But I do doubt that Yeoman farmers soldiers had been the main stay of European soldiers since the Greeks. i also doubt that yeoman soldiers formed the main bulk of forces that subjucated most of the world for Europe during the age of Imperialism.

Originally posted by knott

But then they didn’t fight the Ming either, I think it’s quite clear that only China perhaps Japan and the Muslim world could match the Europeans in the 15 and 16 centaury.

I agree. The Qing, Mughal and Ottoman empires were not known as "Gunpower Empires" for nothing. They, together with the Japanese, have miltary advantage over European forces of similar era. It was only later from the 1700s that the European armies started to surge ahead in technology. By then these empires were in decline.

I do not know of any encounter between a Portuguese and a Ming army or navy, but I do know that in 1661, a Ming general ( acutually he was a rebel fighting against the Qing government)Zheng Chen Gong ( Koxinga) defeated the Dutch both at sea and on land and managed to kick them out of Formosa.
 

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Re: Re: Re: Western Dominance

Originally posted by Zeppelin
You misinterpret Hanson here and take a very narrow definition of democracy. Hanson's concept is not democracy per se but a landowning soldiery that enjoys some form of intellectual freedom with a rule of law that protects their rights and property (which they either have direct or indirect influence over as despotism is absent from all his examples.) Yeoman farmers have been around since the Ancient Greeks and if Hanson is correct in attributing their military efficiency to rule of law and citzenship than you must go back before 1600.


Hanson is a polital creature who twists history selectivly to support his political bias, because he also states in other works that the US won WW2 because the same dynamics that allow greeks to defeat Persians, Britis to defeat Zulus, North to defeat in the ACW, are all indicative of the same point he wants you to believe, read his thesis on greek warfare of 2 decades ago( which is required reading, and he lectures on at the Naval Academy this year) and you will see he has to contradict himself to prove his points. Read his serouse works, not his politicly motivated nonsense.

HB
 

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Re: Re: Re: Re: Western Dominance

Originally posted by Hulaoguan


I do not know of any encounter between a Portuguese and a Ming army or navy, but I do know that in 1661, a Ming general ( acutually he was a rebel fighting against the Qing government)Zheng Chen Gong ( Koxinga) defeated the Dutch both at sea and on land and managed to kick them out of Formosa.

There were encounters between Portuguese and Ottoman navies and clashes between their marines. Nothing decisive some spectacular raids like the raid on Jeddah for the Portuguese.
 

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Currently I am reading a book on exactly this subject:
"The wealth and poverty of nations. Why some are so rich and some so poor." By David S. Landes.

It is an excellent book and quite a compulsive theory and I would recommend it to anyone. It is very difficult to describe his exact theory, but his main points are based on culture (in the social sense), geography and the structure of the societies. He also is very amusing in his punches at other theories.
 

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I could not post last week end as the server was down, and this is the first chance I got to post. I cant get HTML to work so used please excuse me if its not clear.

I'm not sure anyone argues that Western Civilization didn't start with Greece. I also don't think anyone is stupid enough to claim there wasn't a culture and civilization before.
The Point is that IF you except that west was dominant at some point (and many of you are taking Greece as the starting point – which is pushing it) then you are ignoring all that came before. You can not just pick a starting point with out looking at what got you to that point.

What we ARE saying that the Greek civilization clearly began to set itself apart from the cultures around it during the time period in question.
Set it self-apart? As in having a elite that ruled in the name of a democracy? Depending on which work you want to use as a start point the great Athenian democracy extended to as low as 20% of the population. Not the mention the huge slave population that Athenian wealth was dependent on.

I am also not sure what your comment about Greeks and Persians means. The two clearly didn't like each other. Were they supposed to support and affirm each other's way of life while killing each other? Tell me again why it is surprising that the Greeks debased Persian accomplishments?
Because your augments sound the same. It’s a very western centric view point.

Your second paragraph falls squarely into the argument most people make in this discussion. I AM NOT DISCOUNTING CHINESE / AFRICAN / INDIAN ACHIEVEMENTS ! ! ! Can we get past it? Clearly people in the East had achievements. Clearly the West borrowed from them, at times heavily. It does not matter. The argument here is clearly defined to warfare and how it is waged. Who cares if the Egyptians invented paper (or whatever) when you are having a discussion on warfare? It simply does not apply. Did they use the paper to kill anyone? Did it affect how their strategies and tactics were used? Did it allow them to conquer Europe? If the answer is no, then it was a notable achievement that has no bearing on this discussion whatsoever.
To take one example you have given. Try to wage war without paper. War does not exist in a Vacuum. All aspects of a society are involved. You have to raise troops, pay them, give orders, write reports and so on. Try all that without paper.

Also, for the last time, I am NOT saying that Westerners are better in any way than other people. We are not smarter, stronger, more good-looking, or more moral. We have no innate superiority due to skin pigmentation. We are completely equal as individuals. This is NOT a discussion that in any way poo-poohs or discounts the individuality and equality of people. What I AM saying is that Western CULTURE has influenced how the West wages war differently than other people's culture has influenced them. This CULTURE has allowed the West to reach a dominant military height in the current world structure. Please remember that we are talking about culture and not people.
Ok well we can agree on something.

Finally, your Chinese exploration example only proves my point. If the Chinese were capable of exploring the world just like the Portuguese but they didn't, then you must ask why. I would stipulate that it was a cultural difference. The Chinese culture was less interested in outside exploration for whatever reason. The Portuguese (and the West in general) had a bent towards exploration. It was the cultural differences that made the Portuguese world travelers. I don't see how we have overlooked any Chinese achievement. For whatever reason, they did not sail into Lisbon. We can't go about making what ifs. We must ask why the Chinese didn't continue to explore. I would argue that it is cultural, just like the West's military march to dominance.
Does not prove your point. It proves that the west had so little to offer that the Chinese had no reason to discover it. However the west (which has run a trade in balance with the east from Greek times) very much wanted what the east had to offer. It’s the west lack of having what it wanted that forced it to come to the east not a failure on the East part.

The middle ages. This period is imo of the utmost importance for western europe, it saw the transformation of a backward region in ruins to a unique and advanced society (around 1450 WE was leading in the use of machines for example). They created the feudal society, parliament and university (in the modern sense). Most importantly there was no totalitair government like in the east or south america. This meant that people could be certain that the rights they had (like ownership) were guaranteed. Without this it makes no sense to embark on innovations or discoveries as any gains can be taken by an emperor.
This is true if you don’t take into the account the heavy taxes paid and the poverty.

The other point was that people (including the kings) began to feel responsible for their society (as illustrated with parliaments). This was completely lacking elsewhere. Also despite the non-unification of WE there was some sort of overall society (first in religion later in science) due to the church and the use of latin.
Do you have an example? As to Latin if the knowledge that were lost to the West were not translated back into Latin would have been hard for Latin to have done much good. Keep in mind that most other regions of the world have the equivalent of a ‘universal’ language.

Another point is the separation of church and state in actual fact. Sure you could be in trouble if you were a heretic in the middle ages, but many princes, burghers and scientists were able to separate their tasks from the religion, without problem (only later it became less separated when the reformation started).
I am not sure you can make this statement. Religion is often times less Prevalent in other societies. Hinduism is well known for its tolerance. To such an extent that its often refereed to as not one religion but many (You should not confuse current Hindu fundamentalism that you mostly hear about in the news with mainstream Hinduism – much like other religions)

I think Green is refering to the Classical Greek texts that were "lost" to the West and rediscovered through Muslim and Christian contact (often facilitated by Jews) primarily through Spain (though some in Sicily and the Middle East).
Yes.
Although this sounds like a desperate plunge from someone resentlful of the West's influence over the world's affairs in trying to point out instances to challenge this assertion. Even if one grants the truth that the West did borrow heavily from the outside, it still proves the point that the West is more open and receptive to foreign ideas as the opposite exchange (East to West) is nowhere nearly as prevelant. This disparity in exchange has only gotten worse; a couple of years ago tiny Spain with its 40 million people translated more books than the entire Arabic world.
Desperate plunge? Resentful? I could take that a bit negatively but Ill pass. Hopefully you will next time as well. It proves that the Arabs also borrowed from the west. When the Arabs conquered parts of the west they came in contact with the influence absorbed it and expanded on it. When the west was wallowing in darkness the Arabs had a renaissance of its own. Yes latter the west was able to reabsorb the information.

I would also not attribute Western dominace of the world not through cultural or climatic factors . Rather, I see the key difference is that for Europe, many independent states exsited and fought one another more or less continuously for hundreds of years. States compete with one another through war, trade and technology. Ideas and people moved across borders quickly.
I don’t see how this can be the deciding factor – India
has rarely had a united government.

Through this competition, military technology improved rapidly. To take one example, there is probably little difference between a Ming cannon and a Rennaissance era European cannon in range, reliability and firepower. But by the 18th Century, when many forts in China is still using Ming era 16th C cannons, European cannon technology had advanced by leaps and bonds. There is no way non Europeans nations can match this technological advancement UNLESS they are also exposed to them and ready to adopt them. The American Indians, for example, adopted the horse and firearms, and hence managed to hold off the westerners well into the late 19th Century.
Which shows that dominance it hard to define. One could easy see that if it were not for diseases the native Americans peoples might have resisted the western advance.

But then they didn’t fight the Ming either, I think it’s quite clear that only China perhaps Japan and the Muslim world could match the Europeans in the 15 and 16 centaury.
I believe a case could be made for other regions as well, (Aztecs did defeat the spanish (and their native allies) but disease may have been their undoing.

Hanson is a polital creature who twists history selectivly to support his political bias, because he also states in other works that the US won WW2 because the same dynamics that allow greeks to defeat Persians, Britis to defeat Zulus, North to defeat in the ACW, are all indicative of the same point he wants you to believe, read his thesis on greek warfare of 2 decades ago( which is required reading, and he lectures on at the Naval Academy this year) and you will see he has to contradict himself to prove his points. Read his serouse works, not his politicly motivated nonsense.
Boy I could not have put it better.

Another book worth reading is “Imagined Histories’, American Historians interpret the past. Even if you don’t agree with the book – it plots how (American) historians have changed how they view the past:D :D :D :cool: :D :D :D
 
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LlywelynII

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I'm skipping over reading all y'all's illustrious posts - so sorry if I'm repeating what someone has already said.

I just wanted to note that the book Germs, Guns, & Steel. I've started a thread in the OT discussing it here. The author's basic point is that the West got thousands of years of head start over the development of any other civilization on earth because of a number of factors including a long swath of climaticly similar terrain (the E-W Mediterranean climate of Eurasia), the large number of grains & easily domesticable plants, & a relatively unprofitable outlook for hunter-gatherers 13000 y.a.

The most amusing part of the explanation for me was the variation in animals available for domestication in Eurasia relative to Africa, America, & Australia - apparently, by the time we made it to Australia (40000 y.a.) & America (i'm blanking, but less than that), we were such good hunters - & the animals were so unused to avoiding us - we were able to exterminate the native species too quickly to realize they were useful for pulling plows. :) Our ineptitude as hunters is what left us cows.

Africa didn't have any useful native species, though, out of its contenders - so maybe it wouldn't've changed anything.

Also, why, from Eurasia, Europe dominated instead of China or India, though, still had far more to do with cultural vagaries,
jay.

ps. I probably should have posted it here in the History section - fewer readers, sure, but my posts would have counted towards my "pimp daddy" rank :).
 

LlywelynII

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oh, & just for the record,

It's asinine to ascribe any special status to Greece because of its development of democracy. Yes, it's an improved way to run a literate, industrial, colonial or post-colonial nation; but it was a lousy way to run an ancient city-state & Athens's democracy was the exception not only relative to other poleis but to its own history - it was more often run by basileoi & tyrannoi.

Ah, but it was a democracy when it was an empire & ran Greece - well, it didn't. The most powerful state in Greece tended to be Sparta after it wasn't Thebes & both were reactionary, militaristic aristocracies. Hellas was preceded by Mycenaean dictatorships & Minoan Crete & followed by Macedonia & Romania.

Really, though, Greece got its agriculture, art & science from its Babylonian, Phoenician, & Egyptian forebears, & by the Golden Age of Greece, the Mediterranean world was already more advanced than the Aztecs were in 1500. I personally agree with the main lines of G,G&S, but even if you don't, Euroasian dominance didn't begin with the Greeks.

Possibly it was why Europe broke out when Ming China faltered, but that isn't the argument I've seen made...
jay.
 

Xter

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Originally posted by Zeppelin
I'm not sure I'd buy this. You seem to be implying that the Argentinas, Mexicos, and Costa Ricas of the world are incapable of producing and maintaining independent publishing firms not to mention catering to its literary population. Books may well make their way from a Madrid publishing house to Mexico City as a number do from London to New York, but I think it would be incorrect to interpret Spain's translation efforts as representative of the entire Spanish speaking world.
Read my post again. I did not say Argentina or México don't have their own translation business. Just that books translated here can also be read in many other countries. Also, take into account that spanish firms tend to expand into those markets (like RepsolIPF, Telefónica, Santander, etc). I would assume the same happens in the book industry, and there is a good possibility that companies like Planeta are firmly established there.