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Re: Nit Picking ....

Originally posted by shrike00
Cool Elephant First .....

I disagree with your analysis of technology. Did it play a role? Yes. Was it crucial? No. As I have stated many times the Aztecs were an incredibly advanced civilization. They had immense writing and record keeping facilities. Their level of engineering was at least that of their Spanish enemies if not more. The had incredibly organized supply and support systems both for their armies and their civilians. Yet they had stone age weapons. The difference is system. Their system of thought, government, and warfare did not place an emphasis on technological innovation when it came to war. They certainly did not develop the idea of decisive battle and they had no idea how to handle determined attacks. The Zulus who also used stone age weapons (with a scattering of guns) over ran 1500 British and Native troops. The Zulus lost the war because they couldn't string battle to battle. The Aztecs didn't even get that far.

The Aztecs were not conquered by wonder and terror. They killed hundreds of Spanish soldier and thousands of their allies at various times. They sacrificed live horses and Spaniards by the dozens that they had captured in battle. It is true that the Spanish were allowed to enter the city at first because they thought they were gods. But once they decided they weren't it got ugly. It didn't help that Alvardo massacred hundreds of Aztecs for no reason. At that point there were 800 Spaniards and a few thousand Taxcala allies trapped inside the city. This city numbered over 250,000 people. It was further surrounded by allies of the Aztecs that pushed the enemies of Spain up towards 8-900,000 people. Yet the Spanish, despite suffering losses on Noche Triste, managed to withdraw part way to Vera Cruz before regrouping and coming back. When they came back they only numbered 1500 or so. Yet they were able to cut off and take the capital city against a foe that had fought them before and seen they weren't gods. Again they did it against unbelieveable odds. They didn't awe the Aztecs into surrender at this point. They starved and slaughtered them into submission.
This would be like pointing out that the Egyptians of Menes' (sp?) time hadn't invented gunpoweder. No metal weapons? Why use an inferior tool when an obsidian blade is so much sharper? Of what use is the wheel without a domesticated animal to pull it? And do you know why it was Alvardo who was in charge at Tenochtitlan? Cortes was rushing back to Vera Cruz to fight off the Spanish soldiers sent from Cuba to arrest him. His only way out of this mess was to conquer. Gunpowder weapons (which, by the way, Europe adopted from the Turks) played a role in their ability to win.

As for republics, democracies, feudalism, etc. The point isn't so much democracy as it is participation is government. It is clear that republics stem from democracy in that the people have a voice. In a similiar pattern feudalism allowed participation in government. Do you think most kings of any era could go against the wishes of their most senior dukes? The entire contract of feudalism is participatory, albeit to a minor segment of the people. However, it was that segment that was expected to do the fighting. Macedon was indeed a monarchy but it was one of the most open manarchies in history. The heavy cavalry called themselves Companions. Alexander was viewed as a first among equals. Later when he started attempting eastern practices of hommage, they balked. It was towasrds the end of his reign when his men refused to go any further that Alexander showed what a truly open monarchy the Macedonians had. His men wouldn't go any further. He had no choice but to turn back. Only later after his death did these monarchies get corrupted into totalitarinaism. Nit picking about republics and democracy doesn't address the central issue. Niether does technology.

The army mutinied, forcing Alexander to choose between turning back or going forward alone; the fact that he didn't go on alone proves that it was an open monarchy? Just where do you draw the line between participatory and not, if the divine monarchies of Europe's expansion fall in the former? Especially if the native peoples of the rest of the world, many of which were far closer to participatory democracies, fall into the latter?

-Pat
 

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DesertEagle84 .....

"-Whomever it was that said the west seldom, if ever, adopted ideas or technology from the east is woefully mistaken, in my opinion. The Europeans adopted almost every technological advance made throughout the Middle Ages from the Middle East and, indirectly, from China. It wasn't until the 15th Century that Europeans even caught up to the Chinese and Middle Eastern cultures."


Couple of points here .... we are not talking about every technological advance. We are talking about advances in the field of warfare. So while it is true that the Chinese invented gunpowder, it was the West that perfected its use in killing people.

I am not claiming that the West is inherently smarter or better. I am not claiming that they have the ultimate scientific mindset. I AM saying that their rational approach to warfare gives them a distinct edge in this field when science is applied to it.
 

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pjcrowe ....

"This would be like pointing out that the Egyptians of Menes' (sp?) time hadn't invented gunpoweder. No metal weapons? Why use an inferior tool when an obsidian blade is so much sharper? Of what use is the wheel without a domesticated animal to pull it? And do you know why it was Alvardo who was in charge at Tenochtitlan? Cortes was rushing back to Vera Cruz to fight off the Spanish soldiers sent from Cuba to arrest him. His only way out of this mess was to conquer. Gunpowder weapons (which, by the way, Europe adopted from the Turks) played a role in their ability to win."


I'm really not exactly clear what your point is here. Clearly, gunpowder weapons played a role in Cortes' ability to conquer the Aztecs. However, I would argue that Toledo steel played a bigger role if we are guaging technology in its usefulness to Cortes. The reason you use steel over obsidian is because obsidian (which indeed may be sharper) very, very quickly loses its edge when it is attempting to slice through Spainish armor. Metal armor turns an obsidian blade very easily. This explains one reason as to why the Spanish were able to wade through piles of Aztecs while receiving almost no wounds despite both side primary use of the sword. In contrast, the Toledo blades of the Spanish couls slice through any of the rudimentary armor of the Aztecs easily and frequently without losing its edge. So you tell me, which was the better weapon?

The Chinese developed quite the system of human drawn carts and wagons in addition to horse drawn vehicles. Are you telling me that a man with a wheel barrow can't move more dirt than a man without one? You idea that the wheel is dependent on the domesticated animal is flawed. In additon, your assertaion that its is a valid arguementative point, even if you are correct, is flawed. I am not claiming the Aztecs were stupid or incompetent. I am saying that they applied none of their intelligence to warfare.

Finally, I am unsure what Cortes' trip back to Vera Cruz to defend himself has to do with anything. I did know about it. Hanson, in fact, discusses it at great length. What does that have to do with him and the Aztecs? If you are suggesting that he didn't originally come to conquer youare woefully mistaken. Other than the fact that it made his job harder I fail to see what you are trying to say there. Maybe you could elaborate.
 

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My list of arguements was based on my perception that you are arguing that the Aztecs among others were culturally indisposed to improve their warfare capabilities, while the Spanish among others were. My point is that both cultures made strides to best use their own environment for warfare. Your line of arguement is on par with saying that Europeans, having not invented glass blade which, with mainenance, have a far sharper edge than metal blades, were clearly disinterested in perfecting their weapons and prefered to be passive in relying on defence.

My first arguement, where I refer to Egypt, has to do with the fact that the American Neolithic (generally refered to as the Formative) didn't hit its stride until about 500 BCE, whereas in Middle East it occurred thousands of years earlier. If you really want to compare apples and oranges, at least compare the Aztecs to, say, the Minoans. Or, if you prefer, compare Rennaisance Spain with the present-day US. Since that Spain would clearly lose in a confrontation with this US, does that make that Spain lack a "rational approach to warfare"?

As for Cortes' trip back to Vera Cruz, my point was that without conquering, his return to Cuba would have meant imprisonment at best. He and his men had no real option but to conquer or die trying. Now there's something that can tip the scales of a battle. Just think of the 50th Maine at Little Round Top.
 

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Originally posted by pjcrowe
My list of arguements was based on my perception that you are arguing that the Aztecs among others were culturally indisposed to improve their warfare capabilities, while the Spanish among others were. My point is that both cultures made strides to best use their own environment for warfare. Your line of arguement is on par with saying that Europeans, having not invented glass blade which, with mainenance, have a far sharper edge than metal blades, were clearly disinterested in perfecting their weapons and prefered to be passive in relying on defence.

My first arguement, where I refer to Egypt, has to do with the fact that the American Neolithic (generally refered to as the Formative) didn't hit its stride until about 500 BCE, whereas in Middle East it occurred thousands of years earlier. If you really want to compare apples and oranges, at least compare the Aztecs to, say, the Minoans. Or, if you prefer, compare Rennaisance Spain with the present-day US. Since that Spain would clearly lose in a confrontation with this US, does that make that Spain lack a "rational approach to warfare"?

As for Cortes' trip back to Vera Cruz, my point was that without conquering, his return to Cuba would have meant imprisonment at best. He and his men had no real option but to conquer or die trying. Now there's something that can tip the scales of a battle. Just think of the 50th Maine at Little Round Top.


I'm not sure what logic you are following with your arguments about the Aztecs and Spanish. I am INDEED saying that the Aztecs were culturally indisposed to warfare. That is my whole point. The Aztecs were an incredibly advanced society. They had engineering feats that dwarfed anything Spain could do. Their biggest pyramids (ziggurats) were on par with the ancient Eqyptians. Their main city dwarfed the biggest city of Spain at the time. Their economy and art were at least as well developed as the Spanish. They had a long history of fighting and empire building, similiar to the Spanish. Yet, their fighting was ritualistic and ceremonial. Despite the Spanish technological advantage, if the Aztecs had simply bunched together and overrun the Spanish, they would have won. Sure they would have taken massive casualties but they would have won. Instead, they tried to fight their style of warfare, took massive casualties, and lost. They were culturally indisposed to decisive battle. The Aztecs did NOT make the best use of their resources for warfare. They had ample resources of metal, ore, etc. They hadn't even developed bronze despite being fairly good gold workers. Even if their best resource was manpower they used if frivolously. Would you rather lose 100,000 men and win or lose 100,000 men and lose? Their strategy and tactics never really changed when fighting the Spaniards despite obvious examples that they were losing.

I'm not sure where you can possibly say the Europeans were interested only in passive defence. There primary weapons were the Arquebus (sp?), the cannon, the sword, and the lance. They killed close to fifty Aztecs for every Spaniard killed (in battle, not by disease). If this isn't offensive, I don't know what is. The fact that they wore armor was to make them better offensive warriors, not to make them passive defenders. Also, you must be the only person on the planet that would prefer to have an obsidian blade to one of solid Toledo steel. It should be telling that the Aztecs used captured Spanish swords whenever possible as opposed to their obsidian blades. They even felt the steel sword was better. I'm not sure how you can possibly argue otherwise.

Comparing Spain and the US is silly. Both are Western nations. We are comparing the warfare of the West vs the rest of the world. France and England beat each other into a pulp in the 100 years war but it adds nothing to this discussion. Spain would clearly lose to the US but not because of its culture. It would be better to make comparisons of the English and Argentinians in the Falklands or the Israelis and Arabs in the '60s and '70s. In both cases the Western powers faced daunting odds and triumphed over equal or superior numbers of troops and equipment. In both cases, the Western culture of decisive battle, individualism, and discipline won out over the non-Western forces. Lets make the right comparisons here and try to avoid silly ones.

Finally, comparing the Aztecs to the Minoans is silly also. Most people agree that Western culture started in the Greek city states not in the Minoan civilization, although it was clearly one of the roots of Greek culture. I would take forces from the Greek city states against the Aztecs any day of the week and twice on Sundays. I'll bet Xenophon's 10,000 could have marched from one end of Mexico to the other and wiped out the Aztecs despite having no firearms and being outnumbered 25 to one (at the minimum). The point here isn't technological level. Even is the Spanish had better technology, the Aztecs could have still wiped them out. One big concerted effort would have done it. They lacked the cultural will and discipline to do what was necessary to win. So they lost.
 

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Originally posted by shrike00
They had engineering feats that dwarfed anything Spain could do. Their biggest pyramids (ziggurats) were on par with the ancient Eqyptians. .

Bigger isn't necessarily better. And stacking stones on top of each other with nice carvings on isn't quite the same as building flying buttresses with the absolute structural minimum support, which had been done in Europe since the mid-14th century. I'm quite fed up with people holding up the Egyptians as such super-builders. Not that they were - for their own time period. The amount of stone hewn for building use in 14th century france alone, in mass, with a much better exploitation of the material and being used to build structures whose quality the egyptians couldn't have equalled, is actually greater than the mass used by the ancient egyptians in their entire 3000-year history.

Egyptian(and Aztec, I suppose) building techniques were impressive for a pre-iron(or pre-bronze) society. But they don't hold a grain to what was accomplished in Europe, the Middle East and Asia from the fall of ingenious dynasty until Colombus.
 

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War in Europe for centuries was about sieging, after every "decisive" battle still remained lots of fortresses to be taken, it is only in the XIX century that the concept of decisive battle takes form, before that some battles were decisive because some inherent fragilities of the loser, but most battles were not decisive at all, that is why we had 100 year wars or 30 year wars.
 

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Originally posted by shrike00
Comparing Spain and the US is silly. Both are Western nations. We are comparing the warfare of the West vs the rest of the world. France and England beat each other into a pulp in the 100 years war but it adds nothing to this discussion. Spain would clearly lose to the US but not because of its culture. It would be better to make comparisons of the English and Argentinians in the Falklands or the Israelis and Arabs in the '60s and '70s. In both cases the Western powers faced daunting odds and triumphed over equal or superior numbers of troops and equipment. In both cases, the Western culture of decisive battle, individualism, and discipline won out over the non-Western forces. Lets make the right comparisons here and try to avoid silly ones.

Finally, comparing the Aztecs to the Minoans is silly also. Most people agree that Western culture started in the Greek city states not in the Minoan civilization, although it was clearly one of the roots of Greek culture. I would take forces from the Greek city states against the Aztecs any day of the week and twice on Sundays. I'll bet Xenophon's 10,000 could have marched from one end of Mexico to the other and wiped out the Aztecs despite having no firearms and being outnumbered 25 to one (at the minimum). The point here isn't technological level. Even is the Spanish had better technology, the Aztecs could have still wiped them out. One big concerted effort would have done it. They lacked the cultural will and discipline to do what was necessary to win. So they lost.

I fully agree that the comparisons would be silly, but you miss my point that they're more meaningful than the comparison you used. And since when is Argentina any less Western than the US? Both grew out of European colonial settlements, one predominantly English, the other from the very Spain you uphold as a prime example of Western war culture. I still say you're comparing apples and oranges.

-Pat
 

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This subject has been a general trend through out a lot of western civilization (If we pick Greece as the starting point - which ofcourse totaly ignores over 2000 years of eastern/african influnce). The Greeks used it as a excuse to debase Persia achievments.
But the bottom line is that the defination varies of what is dominate culture. Europe may currently have the dominance but by no means is it uncontested, and by no means has it held it since the time of Greece. To say so is to ignore Chinese/Indian/African and other areas achievments.
One example: If China had not decided that the rest of the world held no intrest - Chinese junks could have sailed into Lisbon years before the Portugese made it to India. These voyages of exploration are often over looked in the west.
Another: Many of the classical text used in the west were translated from Arabic by Jewish and Arabic translaters as well as adding to the knowledge so that it would be ready when Europe was.
The list goes on.
 

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Originally posted by GreenPhrog
Another: Many of the classical text used in the west were translated from Arabic by Jewish and Arabic translaters as well as adding to the knowledge so that it would be ready when Europe was.
The list goes on.

I am very curious to hear exactly what you mean by this sentence.

EF
 

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Originally posted by GreenPhrog
This subject has been a general trend through out a lot of western civilization (If we pick Greece as the starting point - which ofcourse totaly ignores over 2000 years of eastern/african influnce). The Greeks used it as a excuse to debase Persia achievments.
But the bottom line is that the defination varies of what is dominate culture. Europe may currently have the dominance but by no means is it uncontested, and by no means has it held it since the time of Greece. To say so is to ignore Chinese/Indian/African and other areas achievments.
One example: If China had not decided that the rest of the world held no intrest - Chinese junks could have sailed into Lisbon years before the Portugese made it to India. These voyages of exploration are often over looked in the west.
Another: Many of the classical text used in the west were translated from Arabic by Jewish and Arabic translaters as well as adding to the knowledge so that it would be ready when Europe was.
The list goes on.

I'm not sure anyone argues that Western Civilization didn't start with Greece. I also don't think anyone is stupid enough to claim there wasn't a culture and civilization before. So I am not sure what point of your first paragraph is making. What we ARE saying that the Greek civilization clearly began to set itself apart from the cultures around it during the time period in question. I am also not sure what your comment about Greeks and Persians means. The two clearly didn't like each other. Were they supposed to support and affirm each other's way of life while killing each other? Tell me again why it is surprising that the Greeks debased Persian accomplishments?

Your second paragraph falls squarely into the argument most people make in this discussion. I AM NOT DISCOUNTING CHINESE / AFRICAN / INDIAN ACHIEVEMENTS ! ! ! Can we get past it? Clearly people in the East had achievements. Clearly the West borrowed from them, at times heavily. It does not matter. The argument here is clearly defined to warfare and how it is waged. Who cares if the Egyptians invented paper (or whatever) when you are having a discussion on warfare? It simply does not apply. Did they use the paper to kill anyone? Did it affect how their strategies and tactics were used? Did it allow them to conquer Europe? If the answer is no, then it was a notable achievement that has no bearing on this discussion whatsoever.

Also, for the last time, I am NOT saying that Westerners are better in any way than other people. We are not smarter, stronger, more good looking, or more moral. We have no innate superiority due to skin pigmentation. We are completely equal as individuals. This is NOT a discussion that in any way poo-poohs or discounts the individuality and equality of people. What I AM saying is that Western CULTURE has influenced how the West wages war differently than other people's culture has influenced them. This CULTURE has allowed the West to reach a dominant military height in the current world structure. Please remember that we are talking about culture and not people.

Finally, your Chinese exploration example only proves my point. If the Chinese were capable of exploring the world just like the Portugese but they didn't, then you must ask why. I would stipulate that it was a cultural difference. The Chinese culture was less interested in outside exploration for whatever reason. The Portugese (and the West in general) had a bent towards exploration. It was the cultural differences that made the Portugese world travellers. I don't see how we have overlooked any Chinese achievement. For whatever reason, they did not sail into Lisbon. We can't go about making what ifs. We must ask why the Chinese didn't continue to explore. I would argue that it is cultural, just like the West's military march to dominance.

I will not address you last comment until you further explain it after you are done with your busy weekend.
 

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Interesting thread! I have some opinions on this as well.
Imo there are 3 main reasons (concentrating on western europe):
-Geography and climate. This was greatly beneficial for agriculture, fishing and later on trading and the main drive for surplus production
-The mix between the roman, christian and barbarians from the middle ages onward. To put it simplified from the romans came the intitutions for government, from the christians the sense of unification and from the barbarians the sense of individuality.
-The middle ages. This period is imo of the utmost importance for western europe, it saw the transformation of a backward region in ruins to a unique and advanced society (around 1450 WE was leading in the use of machines for example). They created the feudal society, parliament and university (in the modern sense). Most importantly there was no totalitair government like in the east or south america. This meant that people could be certain that the rights they had (like ownership) were guaranteed. Without this it makes no sense to embark on innovations or discoveries as any gains can be taken by an emperor. The other point was that people (including the kings) began to feel responsible for their society (as illustrated with parliaments). This was completely lacking elsewhere. Also despite the non-unification of WE there was some sort of overall society (first in religion later in science) due to the church and the use of latin.
Another point is the seperation of church and state in actual fact. Sure you could be in trouble if you were a heretic in the middle ages, but many princes, burghers and scientists were able to seperate their tasks from the religion, without problem (only later it became less seperated when the reformation started).

All these things were lacking elsewhere. If you look at the muslem societies for example. They were far more advanced, but once government became too centralised/religious all innovations stopped. The same goes for China. Any advance had to be stimulated by the emperor (or his government of course) or it would be abandoned as many examples illustrate.
 

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I think Green is refering to the Classical Greek texts that were "lost" to the West and rediscovered through Muslim and Christian contact (often facilitated by Jews) primarily through Spain (though some in Sicily and the Middle East). Although this sounds like a desperate plunge from someone resentlful of the West's influence over the world's affairs in trying to point out instances to challenge this assertion. Even if one grants the truth that the West did borrow heavily from the outside, it still proves the point that the West is more open and receptive to foreign ideas as the opposite exchange (East to West) is nowhere nearly as prevelant. This disparity in exchange has only gotten worse; a couple of years ago tiny Spain with its 40 million people translated more books than the entire Arabic world.
 

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Originally posted by Zeppelin
This disparity in exchange has only gotten worse; a couple of years ago tiny Spain with its 40 million people translated more books than the entire Arabic world.
Remember that books translated in Spain are also read in all the spanish speaking countries. That's several hundred million, not just 40.
 

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Originally posted by Xter
Remember that books translated in Spain are also read in all the spanish speaking countries. That's several hundred million, not just 40.

I'm not sure I'd buy this. You seem to be implying that the Argentinas, Mexicos, and Costa Ricas of the world are incapable of producing and maintaining independent publishing firms not to mention catering to its literary population. Books may well make their way from a Madrid publishing house to Mexico City as a number do from London to New York, but I think it would be incorrect to interpret Spain's translation efforts as representative of the entire Spanish speaking world.