Originally posted by crooktooth
Plundering was very profitable. For the plunderers. It didn't usually get much cash for their employer, unless an organized system of "contributions" was instituted, or a large public treasury came into the hands of the army when it was still under good discipline.
i haven't done a systematic study of this, but it is my understanding that there was always an organized system of "donations":
in feudal times, usually the king was out there too -- & he got the pick of the litter.
even if the king wasn't there, the nobles were expected to "make presents" to the throne, just as the king often "made presents" in order to retain loyalty etc.
later w/ standing armies raised by the king, the king got the lion's share, even if he wasn't there
&, then, of course, although nobles were excluded from many taxes, other soldiers were not.
mercenaries, otoh iiuc, were not so reliable when it came to handing over plunder.
there must be a study on the economics of this out there somewhere ...
Originally posted by Dinsdale
But where is the evidence for this. Where is the plunder from Spanish Succession, L Of Augsberg, 7 Years, Great Northern, Austrian Succession Wars? What happened to the treasuries of Henry VIII of England, or Louis XIV and XV of France?
there are plenty of examples of unsuccessful wars. there are also plently of examples of unsuccessful restaurants. doesn't mean that they were not conceived of as speculative activities. i believe that for the majority of wars that come to unambiguous conclusions to the victor came the spoils & that they were quite lucrative &, in fact, one major source of income for the state. however, i'm not an expert on this, it is merely my overall sense -- comes mostly from reading about the "nature" of medieval states/empires in poli sci.
i'm looking into it some, when i have something more useful to report, i will post.