I’m pretty sure goods bought in regions with poor access to said goods will pay more for them. Whether that’s directly implemented as a “transport” cost, or the goods just being more expensive due to lower supply I’m not sure, but that would still kinda encompass your point.i understand that infrastructure will need to be upgraded to improve the movement of goods (increase volum, logistics etc), but something i have always wanted in vic3 is transportation cost. Will there be transportion cost (in the price or elsewhere) and transportation time for the goods?
like it wouldnt make sense that the british isles can access good from the indian market the same price as indians simply because britain controls india.
From the Q&A on discord.i understand that infrastructure will need to be upgraded to improve the movement of goods (increase volum, logistics etc), but something i have always wanted in vic3 is transportation cost. Will there be transportion cost (in the price or elsewhere) and transportation time for the goods?
like it wouldnt make sense that the british isles can access good from the indian market the same price as indians
simply because britain controls india.
What determines tax effectiveness? I think Victoria 3 is trying to stay away from abstractions and arbitrary modifiers that we saw in previous games such as EU4. I don't think it would be good to be able to just magically add a 50% tax efficiency modifier by adopting a law without doing anything to earn it.- Is there going to be a "tax effectiveness" thing like Vic2? For example, if your State is weak, you tax at 40% but you only collect 20% of tax because your "tax effectiveness" is 50% (so half of 40% = 20%). You need a powerful State to collect 100% of the taxes you set.
In Vicky 2 it was determined by tech and amount of bureaucrats in a provinceWhat determines tax effectiveness? I think Victoria 3 is trying to stay away from abstractions and arbitrary modifiers that we saw in previous games such as EU4. I don't think it would be good to be able to just magically add a 50% tax efficiency modifier by adopting a law without doing anything to earn it.
Seems like it'll be tied to the "bureaucratic capacity" thing.- Is there going to be a "tax effectiveness" thing like Vic2? For example, if your State is weak, you tax at 40% but you only collect 20% of tax because your "tax effectiveness" is 50% (so half of 40% = 20%). You need a powerful State to collect 100% of the taxes you set.
Apparently, different tax types will have different effects on each pop class.- There also seems to be a limitation in choosing how progressive income tax is. You can´t choose which class to tax. It was fantastic in Vic2 how you could try different options like taxing the rich and middle class but not the poor, or taxing the poor and the rich but no the middle class, etc... it was fun playing with that and also the effect it had on how POPs promoted or demoted.
Just my assumption, but I don't think there's a limit to how many goods you can add with the "+" button there.- You can only apply consumption tax to 3 goods? There should be the posibility to tax all goods, not just 3 of them.
I don't think you understand what I mean. "Tax effectiveness" is not an abstraction, is something realistic. In Vic2, your "tax effectiveness" in a province is defined by the ammount of bureaucrats you have in that province.What determines tax effectiveness? I think Victoria 3 is trying to stay away from abstractions and arbitrary modifiers that we saw in previous games such as EU4. I don't think it would be good to be able to just magically add a 50% tax efficiency modifier by adopting a law without doing anything to earn it.
It still seems a huge step back from Vic2:Apparently, different tax types will have different effects on each pop class.
It may not be as direct as what Vic2 did, but it's also more realistic.
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I wasn't making a judgement of value, just posting the information we currently have on the subject.It still seems a huge step back from Vic2:
More precisely, if the government subsidizes a building, it guarantees that workers in that factory will be paid at least a "fair wage" according to national norms (so in a country with high Standard of Living, subsidies cost more than in countries with low), and that the building at least breaks even. So if you've overbuilt your Steel Industry to ensure your construction and motor industries are operating at peak efficiency, to the point that Coal and Iron is now super expensive while Steel is cheap, you will have to not only top up the wages of the Pops who work there to ensure they don't take jobs elsewhere, but also pick up the rest of the bill if the input goods cost more than the output revenue gained.I'm not sure if this is the correct thread to ask this in, but regarding this line:
"Government subsidies guarantee a good wage to keep production high"
Will it also be possible to give subsidies specifically for the factory's purchase of input goods instead of the worker's wages?