Nope. The root is proto-Germanic *karilaz* or *karlaz*. Karol would be completely wrong on linguistic grounds.
Why is Proto-Germanic written with *-az or *-oz endings but no Germanic languages use it? Does it really sound like "ahz"?
Nope. The root is proto-Germanic *karilaz* or *karlaz*. Karol would be completely wrong on linguistic grounds.
So why did he use this monogram himself (or his scribes whe don't really know) ? And talking about latins where are romans ?
Merovingians are common knowledge? That would be like claiming that knowing the name of every Finnish region is common knowledge.That doesn't require historical expertise. It's (almost) common knowledge.
Nope. The root is proto-Germanic *karilaz* or *karlaz*. Karol would be completely wrong on linguistic grounds.
Because Latin was still the Lingua Franca of learned men in Europe by Charlemagne's time and for hundreds and hundreds of years afterwards.
Any documents and books would be written in latin, and any King who aspired towards something greater would of couse much prefer to use his name in Latin, because it was more prestigious.
Merovingians are common knowledge? That would be like claiming that knowing the name of every Finnish region is common knowledge.
That looks so weird with first letter capitals and without the italics.
Nope. The root is proto-Germanic *karilaz* or *karlaz*. Karol would be completely wrong on linguistic grounds.
Did you get the point i was trying to make? Because if you did then why does it matter?![]()
Because it comes from *karilaz* via Frankish *karil* and *karal* (mind that Frankish *karil and *karal* is not a proper Name though) via Old Dutch *keril*, *karal* and *karl*. There would be no "o" sound, but rather an absorbed/muttered "i" or "a" sound. The "o" of Carolus is mainly an attempt to latinize that. I think it would be best to portray Charlemagne's Name as "Karl".How is it wrong? The Dutch say Karel after all.
The -az suffix is the most common nominative masculine singular ending. No modern Germanic language uses it but we have ample evidence for it: Old Norse has instead of it a -ʀ ending that had the approximate phonetic value of [*ɻ(ʲ)] (a possibly-palatal retroflex approximant), Gothic and Vandalic have instead -s, and Finnish preserves occasional words with -as because it lacks a "z" (such as "kuningas" < "*kuningaz"). As we're aware that /z/ > /r/ is a very possible as well as a likely change, and that /z/ > /s/ in word-final position is nothing alien, we can assume that the original form of the suffix had a voiced "z" at the end (this is somewhat supported by the shift of |"*wēzun" in Proto-Germanic to "were" in English and "veʀȧ" (not a direct descendant from this example word but closely related) in Old Norse). Finnish remarkably preserves an "-as" ending in loanwords, so we now assume it was probably "*-az" but we're not sure. The next step is to look at Proto-Indo-European, where the most common nominative suffixes were -os and -ós. The change of /o/ > /a/ is very well known for Germanic, but the change of /s/ > /z/ is a bit more wonky and that's where Verner's law comes in which is beyond the scope of this post but essentially a special case of the law transformed /s/ in stressed environments to /z/ when the stress shiftedWhy is Proto-Germanic written with *-az or *-oz endings but no Germanic languages use it? Does it really sound like "ahz"?
Merovingians are common knowledge? That would be like claiming that knowing the name of every Finnish region is common knowledge.
If you want to make a game on medieval era, and especially a DLC upon Charlemagne, yes, you should know the Merovingians.
Because it comes from *karilaz* via Frankish *karil* and *karal* (mind that Frankish *karil and *karal* is not a proper Name though) via Old Dutch *keril*, *karal* and *karl*. There would be no "o" sound, but rather an absorbed/muttered "i" or "a" sound. The "o" of Carolus is mainly an attempt to latinize that. I think it would be best to portray Charlemagne's Name as "Karl".
The -az suffix is the most common nominative masculine singular ending. No modern Germanic language uses it but we have ample evidence for it: Old Norse has instead of it a -ʀ ending that had the approximate phonetic value of [*ɻ(ʲ)] (a possibly-palatal retroflex approximant), Gothic and Vandalic have instead -s, and Finnish preserves occasional words with -as because it lacks a "z" (such as "kuningas" < "*kuningaz"). As we're aware that /z/ > /r/ is a very possible as well as a likely change, and that /z/ > /s/ in word-final position is nothing alien, we can assume that the original form of the suffix had a voiced "z" at the end (this is somewhat supported by the shift of |"*wēzun" in Proto-Germanic to "were" in English and "veʀȧ" (not a direct descendant from this example word but closely related) in Old Norse). Finnish remarkably preserves an "-as" ending in loanwords, so we now assume it was probably "*-az" but we're not sure. The next step is to look at Proto-Indo-European, where the most common nominative suffixes were -os and -ós. The change of /o/ > /a/ is very well known for Germanic, but the change of /s/ > /z/ is a bit more wonky and that's where Verner's law comes in which is beyond the scope of this post but essentially a special case of the law transformed /s/ in stressed environments to /z/ when the stress shifted
This is the simplified version, mind youLinguistics still manages to give me nightmares.
This is the simplified version, mind you![]()
You don't want to understand, right? AAAAAAAAAAAAAARGH! And you don't understand how regnal numbers work. We want FRANKISH names which are linked to Charles. Like a German Karl would be counted as Charles II too... We DON'T DON'T DON'T want Charlemagne as name... NOONE WAS SUGGESTING THIS. And even Charlemagne would work just make Charlemagne_Charles in the name list... But we want Karol_Charles in the name list...
You're babbling on about a tangent that you feel emotional right now. We can talk when you get your stuff in order. I'd suggest nailing down what exactly you want to discuss first.
The only thing I said was that Charlemagne was not viable because we don't want a Charles I after him. Then you started going on about your Karol fancy, quite chaotically. There was no connection anyway.
But he's Frankish, so why wouldn't Paradox use the Frankish version of the name? It's not like regnal numbers are an issue, they just have to set it so that Charles and whatever the Frankish version is count as the same name. Like Henri and Heinrich.
Why is Charlemagne called Charles?