After some researchs, I found that having de jure Scotland in the Hebrid and Man isles doesn't really make sense.
The area was ruled by Norse Gaels during more than a century, maybe even two, before 1066 and I think it should be de jure Kingdom of the Isles. I don't really see what claim Scotland would have on these province in 1066. After all, History wise, the Scottish only got them by buying them to the Norwegian king in 1266, which is two centuries after the starting date!
The area was ruled by Norse Gaels during more than a century, maybe even two, before 1066 and I think it should be de jure Kingdom of the Isles. I don't really see what claim Scotland would have on these province in 1066. After all, History wise, the Scottish only got them by buying them to the Norwegian king in 1266, which is two centuries after the starting date!
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