One could argue that at least the County of Rome and the Duchy of Latium could have "Roman" culture not the same of the "Romans" that conquered Europe but a close descendent of them? Sure... maybe the name could be "Italo - Roman" if one want to be more precise.
What is sure is that the french as we know it only appeared in the last centuries of the last millenia. in the new start date, french did not exist nor in 870 altough in that date the transformation to french was already in the process.
in 769 it is very likely gallo-roman/roman still existed and with frankish contact and the loss of latin education will make the language slowly evolve into french and other romance dialect.
So I'd say if latin even vulgar was still spoken in Italy, and the roman culture was still preserved somehow, they deserve to have the roman culture.
Okay, guys, you've convinced me. It's true. 'Frankish' as used in the game from 1066 onward and even from 867 essentially means 'Old French', possibly in connection with the fact that the King of France was generally referred to as the King of Franks until late middle ages. And crusaders of all extraction were referred to as 'Franks' by 'Saracens' (of all extraction).
... Whereas back in 769 I suppose 'Frankish' would have applied to the real Frankish aristocracy and warriors rather than the general post-Roman populace. And yeah, the language, even in the treaty of Verdun (843) sounds like bad Latin more than old French. True that.
So perhaps 'Salic lands' should be Frankish, as in really Frank-ish, the rest being some sort of late Gallo-Roman under Frankish rule and political dominance. Merely political dominance does not decide culture, although it's close to (which is why e.g. Welsh/Romano-British flips to Anglo-Saxon so easily).
For convenience, however, I guess explaining 769 Frankish in the proper context of very early French society would also work. I can't be sure, but I don't think the Roman-derived inhabitants of France identified with the Basileus as
their emperor the same way Roman populace did under barbarian kings earlier on. Nor would, I think, any hypothetical Roman reclamation by Byzzies have gone down as easily as Belisarius's takeover of Rome 250 years back. Correct me if I'm wrong, though, I'm not a real historian just a hobbyist.
Bah, there's nothing Roman about Vulgar Latin.
There is. Even back in the classical period and the Republic vulgar was vulgar. You can expect vulgar Latin especially to use simplified grammar and make use of some elements of other local languages. If you compare Caesar's writing to Cicero's (which is a pain to translate if you aren't really fluent), the language is much simpler, closer even to the syntax of modern languages. Real vulgar Latin would have been even simpler than that. Vulgar Latin will be different from place to place, but Rome will have its own version just like any other place. Only perhaps with less non-Roman influence than otherwise.
One could argue that at least the County of Rome and the Duchy of Latium could have "Roman" culture not the same of the "Romans" that conquered Europe but a close descendent of them? Sure... maybe the name could be "Italo - Roman" if one want to be more precise.
What is sure is that the french as we know it only appeared in the last centuries of the last millenia. in the new start date, french did not exist nor in 870 altough in that date the transformation to french was already in the process.
in 769 it is very likely gallo-roman/roman still existed and with frankish contact and the loss of latin education will make the language slowly evolve into french and other romance dialect.
So I'd say if latin even vulgar was still spoken in Italy, and the roman culture was still preserved somehow, they deserve to have the roman culture.
You're just a bad linguist, sorry.
I'm neither Italian, nor Dane, hell, my mother tongue isn't even in the same language group as either, but having learnt French, and a smattering of (Anglophone) Latin, I can still
read Italian newspapers and generally get the gist (though sometimes I get nothing) and in the days I could speak Danish, I could also
understand Swedish. Certainly not error-free, but I wouldn't have starved in either country, so to, ahem, speak.
Finnish is a class unto itself.
That's quite subjective. For example I can read newspapers in Italian on the basis of Latin and some French, I can handle Iberian languages if I really really need to (which resembles working out bad Latin), but I can't really understand languages related to my own mother language the same way some monolinguals can communicate with other monolinguals where each speaks his own mother language to the other.
As for bad post-classical Latin vs old French, dig up the treaty of Verdun online and decide for yourself. I suppose the assessment is largely subjective. I'm reasonably advanced in Latin and used to be intermediate in French, and it looks more Latin than French to me.