https://deremilitari.org/2013/12/the-development-of-battle-tactics-in-the-hundred-years-war/
Here it is mentioned that the English army was quite professionalised in mid 1300s and had a combat effectivness that France could only rarely meet even one hundred years later.
Even if France was richer and had much more Manpower, English seems to have been able to organized their armies and use their limited resources much more effectively, so should this be represented in some way? It seems quite important to be honest.
Here it is mentioned that the English army was quite professionalised in mid 1300s and had a combat effectivness that France could only rarely meet even one hundred years later.
Even if France was richer and had much more Manpower, English seems to have been able to organized their armies and use their limited resources much more effectively, so should this be represented in some way? It seems quite important to be honest.