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Captain Frakas

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That wasn't during the middle ages. This practice started only in the early modern era in most cases.

And that's not specific to royalty: many if not most Christian commoners have, since the early modern era, at the very last two given names (his name, and the name of his godfather or godmother).
 
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DPS

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And that's not specific to royalty: many if not most Christian commoners have, since the early modern era, at the very last two given names (his name, and the name of his godfather or godmother).

Middle names are not, for the most part, the name of a godparent.
 

Captain Frakas

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Middle names are not, for the most part, the name of a godparent.

Certainly but I was talking about given names, not about middle names.
 

Captain Frakas

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Captain Frakas

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If you've heard of president of the French Republic such as Emmanuel-Jean-Michel-Frédéric Macron, of François-Gérard-Georges-Nicolas Hollande, of Nicolas-Paul-Stéphane Sarközy de Nagy-Bocsa, of Jacques-René Chirac, of François-Maurice-Adrien-Marie Mitterrand or if you've heard of chancellors of the German Federal Republic such as Helmut Josef Michael Kohl, Gerhard Fritz Kurt Schröder or Angela Dorothea Merkel, then you've heard of someone with multiple given names and no middle name.

The middle name is a personal name (which can be multiple) which is placed between the given name (praenomen, which come before the name) and the family name (which is generally considered being "the" name) hence is distinct to both.

Multiple given names are all given names (prénoms in French, in plural). The used given name is generally the first ranked one, but some people use another than the first one as their main given name. For example, Marie-Ségolène Royal use Ségolène as her main given name. She was a French ministress, I'm not sure if she is very famous worldwide, but someone like Henri-Philippe-Bénoni-Omer Pétain, who used Philippe as his main given name, is certainly (at last among war gamers who commonly use this forum).

My source indicate that those multiple given name are recorded to appear in Christendom around the 16th century.
 
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Andrelvis

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No. Not unless you mean a middle name, or some quasi-multipart given name like Maryanne.

The Almanach de Gotha strongly disagrees :p
 

faiuwle

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Ahh. TBH I really only know French politicians by their last names. But I certainly don't know anyone in the US with multiple names like that, so I think it's a stretch to say that it's common across the whole Christian world.
 

Captain Frakas

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Ahh. TBH I really only know French politicians by their last names. But I certainly don't know anyone in the US with multiple names like that, so I think it's a stretch to say that it's common across the whole Christian world.

The United States (who were barely part of the Christian World in the early modern era, mind you), seem to only use one given name (the praenomen), completed by one middle name and one last name (the family name). They have a kind of tria nomina, with two personal names and one family name, while Western Europe rather use a dual system of names, with given names added to family name.
I presume that the existence of a middle name make it less appealing to have many given names.

The fact that the United States (and few other places) might see an exception to the rule do not make the rule being an exaggerated stretch, in my humble opinion, (especially when the rule state "many if not most", not "everyone")... I mean, if we leave americano-centered considerations, obviously.

The British Prime Ministers Anthony Charles Lynton Blair, James Gordon Brown, David William Donald Cameron and Theresa Mary May have multiple personal names. Are they multiple given names or given names and middle names ? The fact that Gordon Brown did chose as his main name the second ranked personal name tend to make me think they are multiple given names. But a British might enlighten us more than any of my speculations.
 
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Andrelvis

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The United States (who were barely part of the Christian World in the early modern era, mind you), seem to only use one given name (the praenomen), completed by one middle name and one last name (the family name). They have a kind of tria nomina, with two personal names and one family name, while Western Europe rather use a dual system of names, with given names added to family name.
I presume that the existence of a middle name make it less appealing to have many given names.

Used, I would rather say. Many baby boomers in Western and Central Europe indeed have three given names, but it's quite rare amongst younger people.
 

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The United States (who were barely part of the Christian World in the early modern era, mind you), seem to only use one given name (the praenomen), completed by one middle name and one last name (the family name). They have a kind of tria nomina, with two personal names and one family name, while Western Europe rather use a dual system of names, with given names added to family name.
I presume that the existence of a middle name make it less appealing to have many given names.

The fact that the United States (and few other places) might see an exception to the rule do not make the rule being an exaggerated stretch, in my humble opinion, (especially when the rule state "many if not most", not "everyone")... I mean, if we leave americano-centered considerations, obviously.

The British Prime Ministers Anthony Charles Lynton Blair, James Gordon Brown, David William Donald Cameron and Theresa Mary May have multiple personal names. Are they multiple given names or given names and middle names ? The fact that Gordon Brown did chose as his main name the second ranked personal name tend to make me think they are multiple given names. But a British might enlighten us more than any of my speculations.
The most common thing in the UK is to have one first name, one middle name and one last name eg: John Henry Smith
It is less common but not that rare for people to have multiple middle names eg: John Henry Robert Smith
Some people also choose to be referred to by their middle name such as Gordon Brown did eg: John Henry Smith preferring to be called Henry Smith

Most people just stick to the first name and last name they are given when using their name though.
 

Captain Frakas

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What's the difference beetween middle name and given name?

Middle name implies that it is constituted from names placed after the "pre-name" (praenomen, which, as far as I know, translate as "given name") and before the family name ("the name").

Pre-name, middle name and post-name (in eastern naming conventions) are personal names, which mean that the name the individual rather than is parents (like patronymics) or his family (like family names) or a branch (like cognomens).

Contrary to having a "pre-name" and a middle name, having multiple "pre-names" and no "middle name" mean that all pre-names are part of the same part of the full name. In France, for example, someone with multiple prénoms can chose to be legally called by anyone of them as they are all his "pre-name". That's how Henri-Philippe-Bénoni-Omer Pétain did chose his second ranked pre-name, Philippe, as his main pre-name and was called back then just like today, Philippe Pétain. That's why Louis-Philippe-Albert d'Orléans decided to be called Louis-Philippe (avoiding to use Albert) up to 1883 and then, only, Philippe (avoiding to use Louis and Albert).
All pre-names are equally pre-names and any of them can be used as the main pre-name. On the contrary, a middle name couldn't be used as a pre-name without ceasing to be the middle name.
 
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Bearnest

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That's good as French naming conventions go.
As for Spanish naming conventions, is very similar, only most people get two given names (some have one and some have three or more but the latter is rare), then you have your paternal surname and afterwards your maternal surname. That is what is called a full name and is what one would use for legal purposes. Some countries like Argentina only use paternal surname.
For everyday life you can use one given name and your paternal surname. Sometimes, if you paternal surname is very common but your maternal surname is not, people will address you by your maternal surname. Off the top of my head, the case of former Spanish Prime Minister Jose Luis Rodriguez Zapatero comes to mind. Jose and Luis are his given names, Rodriguez is his paternal surname, and the name he'll pass on to his children, but in context he can be called Zapatero (which is Spanish for "shoemaker" btw) which is his maternal surname.
 

Captain Frakas

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Or the former Spanish president of the government José María Alfredo Aznar López (José, María and Alfredo being given names, Alfredo being unused to call him), Aznar ("fox") being his paternal family name, and Lopez ("wolf") being his maternal family name.

I know Spaniards friends (from Estremadura) who put an y ("and") between the paternal and maternal family name... Is that specific to a region? From where root the use of the double family name in Spanish? Did it existed in mediaeval times (I mean, with patronymics and matronymics instead of family names)?
 

kratostatic

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Interesting discussion.

From my British (English family, lived in Scotland most of my life) perspective there are two types of name - given and family.

There can normally only be one family name or "surname" (I think the only exception would be if the person in question is from a background with multiple family name like Spain), which is usually but not always inherited from the father. Sometimes it is inherited from the mother (especially where the father is unknown or not married to the mother). Other options are "double-barrelling" like Robertson-Smith, which used to be the preserve of the upper class but is increasingly used, or creating a "hybrid" surname from both parent's names (very new). In the case of double barrelling the father's family name is usually the second and can sometimes be used on its own.

Given names are what a person can be called by. Most people in my experience have two and are called the first, being called the first name rather than the other which is called the middle name. Some people have three (multiple middle names) or more or only one, and some people use a later name, being "known by their middle name". Often this is used where one name is more "unusual" than the other to give the child the choice of having an unusual or normal name.

The multiple "prénom" method you're mentioning struck me as quite weird whenever I've encountered it, and I have generally called these people by both (I've never seen more than two except in Captain Frakas' posts) their names: Jean-Luc Mélenchon is never Jean or Luc. In fact I'd probably go so far as to call that a "double-barrelled first name". Calling them by one might take a kind of "nickname" or be used to create one - a "Jose Miguel" known as "Mike" from Miguel->Michael->Mike.

From what I know of the Spanish system, the "y" is considered rather old fashioned and/or upper class. Also it feels kind of strange to me (correct but strange) to describe it as a "maternal" family name as it is inherited from the mother's father and so ultimately indicates descent from a male line. If I was designing a naming system from scratch I would use the Spanish system of family names except using the mother's mother's name as the "second" family name.
 

Captain Frakas

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Thank you for your informations, especially for the y

The multiple "prénom" method you're mentioning struck me as quite weird whenever I've encountered it, and I have generally called these people by both (I've never seen more than two except in Captain Frakas' posts) their names: Jean-Luc Mélenchon is never Jean or Luc.

Jean-Luc-Antoine-Pierre Mélenchon use Jean-Luc as his main pre-names and do not use Antoine and Pierre. That's up to him to chose, among the pre-names his parents gave to him. Jean-Luc Mélenchon is never Jean or Luc because he decided, among his four pre-names, to be called Jean-Luc (Jean-Luc being a common hyphenated pre-name).

When the full set of pre-names is listed, the recommended French typographic composition is to hyphen them all and to italicise those who are used as main pre-names. The full set of pre-name is, generally, only used when it is legally mandatory. So, outside of the administration, individuals are only known by their main pre-names.
 
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kratostatic

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Jean-Luc-Antoine-Pierre Mélenchon use Jean-Luc as his main pre-names and do not use Antoine and Pierre. That's up to him to chose, among the pre-names his parents gave to him. Jean-Luc Mélenchon is never Jean or Luc because he decided, among his four pre-names, to be called Jean-Luc (Jean-Luc being a common hyphenated pre-name).

When the full set of pre-names is listed, the recommended French typographic composition is to hyphen them all and to italicise those who are used as main pre-names. The full set of pre-name is, generally, only used when it is legally mandatory. So, outside of the administration, individuals are only known by their main pre-names.

Ok, interesting. So in the French System it would be Theresa-Mary May and James-Gordon Brown if I understand it correctly. When do children typically decide for themselves and is there an assumption that the first pre-name will normally be used in most cases?
 

Captain Frakas

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Ok, interesting. So in the French System it would be Theresa-Mary May and James-Gordon Brown if I understand it correctly. When do children typically decide for themselves and is there an assumption that the first pre-name will normally be used in most cases?

In most case, the first ranked pre-name is ranked alone, except when the first and the second ranked pre-names are common hyphenated pre-names. That's because the parents' favourite pre-name is the first ranked one (or the first two, hyphenated).
In few case, the children decide to use another pre-name among his pre-names, because he come to prefer it over his first ranked pre-name, for whatever reason.