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TheF

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Wow... I managed to push the 'new thread button' :D

Anyway, now for my question:

Will it be possible to unite the Netherlands with Friesland (or any Dutch minor) like the Spain 'thing'?
 

unmerged(3440)

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The Spanish 'thing' means that the nation that controlls Madrid in the 1460's can become Spain. Obviously that doesn't work in Italy, Germany or the Netherlands.
 

TheF

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I can imagine an event saying something like:

If owner.Holland = Friesland OR Gelre OR Brabant OR Flanders
Then owner.Holland ----> Netherlands

Though this would be a tad ahistorical.

How is the Dutch unification/independence handled then?
 

TheF

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Originally posted by Gorion
Events.

Burgundy conquers the Netherlands, ends up in Spanish hands, the Dutch revolt.

That's cool (thanks for the quick and multiple replies btw :)), it means I'll get to stay 'Frysk en Fry' much longer :D.
 

unmerged(3440)

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Not so cool. If you read the EU2 AAR's, you will see that France usually conquers most of the Netherlands from Burgundy, and I never saw Spain inheriting the Burgundian possesions.
 

Blade!

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Originally posted by Gorion
BTW, what does 'Frysk en Fry' mean?

I was wondering too! I can't even fathom possible meanings! ;)
 

Vulture

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Hmm I am not an expert on Fries dialect. It is a really weird form of Dutch and it ressembles English more than real Dutch. But I guess fry could mean free (free = vrij in real Dutch)
 

Spruce

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well, as Burgundy never got to catch the Fries...and the poor performance of the Burgundian house against France...

sorry, Friesland, no place for you guys in the Netherlands...;) :D
 

unmerged(5974)

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The spanish 'thang' - Granada conquista?

The Spanish 'thing' means that the nation that controlls Madrid in the 1460's can become Spain. Obviously that doesn't work in Italy, Germany or the Netherlands.


Does that apply to all the iberian nations? So if i play portugal or granada or navarra, i can become spain as well?
 

Agelastus

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Originally posted by Van Barel
I hope it doesn't work for portugal too...

Since the union of Castile and Portugal was as "on the cards" in the fifteenth century as a union with Aragon, why not? "Owning Madrid". as has been discussed on another thread, is a poor choice for the criterion for such an important event, since it means no actual political union of Iberian nations need occur.:)