I've already touched on this in another post here, but I've been playing a new campaign and it honestly baffles me how disconnected elections, the upper house, and ideologies are.
In a campaign I played earlier, the ideologies were 18% reactionary, 20% liberal, 40% conservative, and the rest mostly socialist with few anarcho-liberals and communists. The voting intentions were 58% reactionary, 22% liberal, 19% conservative, socialists and communists got no votes. The upper house was pretty much the same as the ideologies.
I am sure that the "first past the post "and "2 per state" laws of the country led to the 3-party system being operated and I probably helped to solidify that result by enforcing party loyalty in some of my states, that pretty much shows that voting works just fine in this game, but why is the upper house so inaccurate regardless of laws? this effectively ensures political gridlock and it doesn't even make sense, mathematically or mechanically. I could see it being done in the name of balancing the ideologies and not allowing really gamey tactics but it still doesn't satisfy me as an answer. Anyone who has an answer to this, I would appreciate if you could inform me of it.
So if I had to recommend something for Victoria 3 , the upper house should be at least somewhat similar to the vote. Not necessarily the exact same, but close. If the reactionaries get 50 percent of the vote, they should have between 40 - 60 % of the seats. The more representative the laws are, the closer to the actual percentages the seats should be.
Now as for the disconnect between ideologies and voting intentions, that makes much more sense. It is quite possible that in times of crisis and polarization ideological conservatives would vote for reactionaries or socialists for communists, liberals for anarcho-liberals etc. It is still too staggering a difference in many cases I feel, so it should be a bit more limited or have more factors influencing than the ones that exist at the moment.