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Oriental Despot

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Plushie said:
The Hindi word 'Sikandar' is a corruption of the name 'Alexander', meaning expert or extremely skilled. Skanda, IIRC, is the name of a Hindu god inspired by Alexander.

While Ashoka's seal is on modern India's national flag. I'm not saying the Greeks left without a trace, but the argument that Indian civilization is some sort of amalgam between Greek and indigenous culture gives way too much weight to the lasting impact of Alexander's invasion.

Plushie said:
I mean, god damn, why do you not want India included?
Earlier I said I didn't want to have to kick the Han out of Cisalpine Gaul, I don't want India included for the same reason. I want a historic simulation that's as realistic as it could possibly be and I think adding India would screw it up.

Maharaja said:
States arnt the only measure of interaction though.

Non-military non-government interaction is just as important.

So while India was exotic and alien to the west in terms of its geography, its ideas and trade played a very important part in everyday Roman life, and vis a vis.

I agree with everything you're saying here.. but regardless, if they include India in the game, whatever influence India might have had on the Roman world is going to manifest itself in states and military conflicts.. that's just how Paradox games always turn out. I cringe every time I play CK and have to see something like the Sheikdom of Bristol pop up, and the more of the world you add to the game, the greater the potential for ridiculous scenarios to play themselves out is going to be.

It's not that I wouldn't want to play an Indian country or that I'd see red when I look at it on the map, or anything like that. I just don't think its essential considering the game's context, and I think cutting it out would be preferable to including it.
 
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Oriental Despot said:
India and China didn't have any contact with each other? That's funny, I could've sworn Buddhism was a big deal in China. Anyways, China was no more cut off from the world than India. The Himalayas don't form a wall around East Asia. Silk Road anybody? I'm not trying to join India at the hip with China, I'm just saying that they had about a parallel influence on the Roman world.

India was more accessible to East Asia than it was to the west, and as a result its cultural influence had a much bigger impact there. Indian civilization laid the basis for the cultures of Indonesia and Malaysia before the introduction of Islam. The cultures of Burma, Thailand, Cambodia and Laos are heavily indebted to Indian influences and all of these countries had extensive direct contact with China, as did India. Southeast Asian Kings modeled themselves on Ashoka the Great's example, Shivan cults were widespread (and still are), and the Southeast Asians imitated Indian architecture in their own monuments.. just look at Angkor Wat, the temple complex is devoted to a Hindu God-King. Those countries were a part of India's cultural sphere. There was no similar exchange between India and the west. The Romans never had Hindu cults, Alexander the Great never held a place in India's collective memory the way native Emperors like Ashoka did, and the Indians didn't translate Greek tragedies (and if they did, they aren't being performed today.. so much for Hellenisms enduring impact on Indian culture.)

As for the argument that German culture was about as foreign to Rome as India would have been.. its kind of a far fetched comparison. The Indians never invaded Rome, Indians didn't serve in the Roman military, Indian Kings never attempted to trace their lineages to Roman families, or kissed the Bishop of Rome's feet. The exchange between Roman civilization and German culture created Western European society, the exchange between the Greeks and India did not leave such a lasting impact on India.
Almost everything you just said deals with the wrong period, but that doesn't keep it from missing the point. Buddism only became really popular in China in the sixth century AD--long after our period. It was Tang China that first created strong links with the West, but even then it had next to no political interaction. Even during Tang China's period, Buddism had lost fashion in India, showing that the two areas weren't particularly closely related. The reason Buddism came to China, not the West, was not because of China's closer connection with India. China was a comparatively new civilization, and it had not achieved a religion as popular as the new ones in the West (Taoism only made much headway around the sixth century AD). It was a soft target for the spread of such a popular religion as Buddism, while the world of Islam was too tough and devout for the same to happen.

Considering that Malaysia was never particularly civilized, it wasn't hard for it to adopt the customs of its richer neighbours. And it was still separated from China. As you say, India had a large effect on it; however, it never adopted Chinese customs, and Islam had more of an effect on it than China. Again, this area was a soft target. It didn't have the unity or devotion of the Islamic world, and this made it easily convertible and strongly reliant on the more sophisticated world of India. You've demonstrated that a world wholly removed from China was influenced by India, and used this to claim India's greater influence on China over the West.

If one actually compares China and the West, it becomes pretty obvious that India's effect on the West was far greater. Islamic philosophy was strongly influenced by the Indians. The teachings of Guptan philosophers were circulated right through the Islamic world. The Guptan number system went right the way to the corner of Europe, yet it took European conquests to bring it to China. Science and Maths in Islam was based on Indian ideas as much as Western and Hellenistic ideas. The Renaissance was partially caused by Europe's adoption of Islamic advances in these areas, and a lot of these advances were drawn from India. China was still without this legacy of India. China's Buddhist world was far more removed from the Hindu world than Islam was.
During the game's period, India was more the receiver of culture than the giver. The Greek world was by far the most advanced of its time, and cultural transfer with it was very one-way. Everywhere it interacted with quickly adopted Greek culture, while very little foreign culture was passed back to the Greeks (look at the Romans, the Near East, and Persia). When the Hellenistic world came to India, a huge amount of Greek ideas were passed over, but little was taken back. Greek religion, Greek philosophy, Greek maths, and Greek words (and yes, Greek plays) were all used by the Indians, while the Greeks took surprisingly little back. Greek culture was a large part of the Greek cultural boom of the Guptan empire, and Buddism was strongly influenced by Greek ideas. Considering that Islam drew much of its science and learning from the Greeks, the displacement of Indian culture by that of Islam never caused the Greek legacy to leave India. China, on the other hand, gave next to no culture to the Indians. The Silk Road was the rope tying two far removed worlds together, and it connected China and India far more weakly than Persia connected India and the Near East.

The limited connection China had with India was purely trade and culture, and it had none of the political interaction that would make China worth simulating in the game. India, on the other hand, got involved in several wars against Westerners (the Greeks, the Muslims), and it affected many powers than in turn affected Westerners. China was so cut off from the West that it only came into serious conflict with it during the Imperial Age.

I never mentioned the later effect of Roman culture on the Germans and the Indians, I described the closer relationship India had with the Mediterranean of our game's period than the Germans had. Germany might become very Romanized in half a century, but only because the Romans expanded that way; they started with little common culture.
 
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Oriental Despot said:
While Ashoka's seal is on modern India's national flag. I'm not saying the Greeks left without a trace, but the argument that Indian civilization is some sort of amalgam between Greek and indigenous culture gives way too much weight to the lasting impact of Alexander's invasion.
You're right, India was still Indian. But Greek ideas, philosophy, and learning remained, and their legacy was large enough to be a testament to the effects of the West on India.

Oriental Despot said:
Earlier I said I didn't want to have to kick the Han out of Cisalpine Gaul, I don't want India included for the same reason. I want a historic simulation that's as realistic as it could possibly be and I think adding India would screw it up.
I doubt I'd have much option but to surrender if the Han reached Cisalpine Gaul. The game must have serious bugs to achieve that, though.
I think India is necessary to make the simulation real. Its effects on Western civilizations were too big to cut it out and expect everything to happen properly.

Oriental Despot said:
I agree with everything you're saying here.. but regardless, if they include India in the game, whatever influence India might have had on the Roman world is going to manifest itself in states and military conflicts.. that's just how Paradox games always turn out. I cringe every time I play CK and have to see something like the Sheikdom of Bristol pop up, and the more of the world you add to the game, the greater the potential for ridiculous scenarios to play themselves out is going to be.
Taking out India could have even worse effects on ridiculous scenarios. If the Seleucids have no eastern neighbours to weaken them, they could become unrealistically powerful. I think the game needs the right factions in the right places to balance itself properly.
 

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madshurtie, perhaps a factor can be added to make the Seleucids get weakened in a certain region, rebellous territories or something, anything to simulate the Indians but not include them. It seems your argument for them to be included is that they helped cause a chain of events that would weaken a power, just by being there.

If we have the nation as some want it, as some huge, rich faction, then they are likely to steamroll the surrounding factions, and be far more of a threat then they were ever to be, hence why a script or something should be added to simulate thier presence but not the potential steamrolling of the East....they were insulated in thier conquests, hence why thier addition in a conquest game such as EU:Rome is very likely to be will make for an extremely unbalanced game, I mean, the fact they will have the secure eastern border instead of the Seleucids and not surrounded by enemies like the Seleucids will mean that the Seleucids empire will be carved up by the various factions surrounding them while the very rich Mauryan empire pushes on from the East to fight the Romans in Asia minor, if you don't like the big white blob in the EU games then the Mauryans are bound to be just as bad....

Also you call Oriental Despot for being out of the games time frame yet you bring up Islam multiple times...
 

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Slasher said:
madshurtie, perhaps a factor can be added to make the Seleucids get weakened in a certain region, rebellous territories or something, anything to simulate the Indians but not include them. It seems your argument for them to be included is that they helped cause a chain of events that would weaken a power, just by being there.

If we have the nation as some want it, as some huge, rich faction, then they are likely to steamroll the surrounding factions, and be far more of a threat then they were ever to be, hence why a script or something should be added to simulate thier presence but not the potential steamrolling of the East....they were insulated in thier conquests, hence why thier addition in a conquest game such as EU:Rome is very likely to be will make for an extremely unbalanced game, I mean, the fact they will have the secure eastern border instead of the Seleucids and not surrounded by enemies like the Seleucids will mean that the Seleucids empire will be carved up by the various factions surrounding them while the very rich Mauryan empire pushes on from the East to fight the Romans in Asia minor, if you don't like the big white blob in the EU games then the Mauryans are bound to be just as bad....
They weren't cohesive enough to steamroll surrounding factions. It was too hard for them to raise enough money and men to lead huge war campaigns. They were beaten by the richer Bactrians easily, and their control over their western and southern provinces was very weak. They may be a rival to Persian empires, but they aren't powerful enough to conquer Persia (the Persian Greeks were more likely to conquer them). Their position in the game just ensures that no Persian faction can strengthen its western border too much, and that Persian factions can get occupied and drawn away from the West by conflicts with Mauraya. Introducing rebellious factions instead is just going to make things even more unrealistic.

Slasher said:
Also you call Oriental Despot for being out of the games time frame yet you bring up Islam multiple times...
I mentioned Islam only when dealing with the issue he had raised. At the beginning of my post I said that he had missed the point for his time period, and I used Islam and other civilizations of the time to demonstrate that. I specifically made a separate argument afterwards to deal with the time period of the game.
 

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madshurtie said:
It's not really an exaggeration. The Indo-Greeks conquered south to Barygaza and east to Mathura, and this covered about half of the fertile and economically important parts of India. The southern tip isn't really relevant when talking about BC India as one culture. Have a look at Wikipedia's page on the Indo-Greeks.

You should know that the (current) wikipedia map of the Indo-Greek kingdom is highly disputed, and has changed numerous times.

In some cases, the only evidence is distribution of coins and muddy references to attempted invasions.

Oriental Despot said:
I agree with everything you're saying here.. but regardless, if they include India in the game, whatever influence India might have had on the Roman world is going to manifest itself in states and military conflicts.. that's just how Paradox games always turn out. I cringe every time I play CK and have to see something like the Sheikdom of Bristol pop up, and the more of the world you add to the game, the greater the potential for ridiculous scenarios to play themselves out is going to be.

It's not that I wouldn't want to play an Indian country or that I'd see red when I look at it on the map, or anything like that. I just don't think its essential considering the game's context, and I think cutting it out would be preferable to including it.

I guess you are right - it would be wierd if I found an Indian dynasty ruling Persia or something.

Perhaps a mechanism could be created to prevent this - like defensive bonuses at the expense of offensive bonuses on Indian kingdoms fighting dis-similar cultures?

lucaluca said:
Totally agree, the idea of the Indo-Greek reign as "indianized" is skewed, India was more graecized. Hellenistic culture was so powerful and universal that could be exported just everywhere.

'Powerful and universal'?

Lets not get into cultural nationalism please.

As in any interaction in history, absorbtion was two-way.

Oriental despot said it best:

Oriental Despot said:
India and China didn't have any contact with each other? That's funny, I could've sworn Buddhism was a big deal in China. Anyways, China was no more cut off from the world than India. The Himalayas don't form a wall around East Asia. Silk Road anybody? I'm not trying to join India at the hip with China, I'm just saying that they had about a parallel influence on the Roman world.

India was more accessible to East Asia than it was to the west, and as a result its cultural influence had a much bigger impact there. Indian civilization laid the basis for the cultures of Indonesia and Malaysia before the introduction of Islam. The cultures of Burma, Thailand, Cambodia and Laos are heavily indebted to Indian influences and all of these countries had extensive direct contact with China, as did India. Southeast Asian Kings modeled themselves on Ashoka the Great's example, Shivan cults were widespread (and still are), and the Southeast Asians imitated Indian architecture in their own monuments.. just look at Angkor Wat, the temple complex is devoted to a Hindu God-King. Those countries were a part of India's cultural sphere. There was no similar exchange between India and the west. The Romans never had Hindu cults, Alexander the Great never held a place in India's collective memory the way native Emperors like Ashoka did, and the Indians didn't translate Greek tragedies (and if they did, they aren't being performed today.. so much for Hellenisms enduring impact on Indian culture.)

While Ashoka's seal is on modern India's national flag. I'm not saying the Greeks left without a trace, but the argument that Indian civilization is some sort of amalgam between Greek and indigenous culture gives way too much weight to the lasting impact of Alexander's invasion.

Because of easy access to Hellenic and Roman sources, European scholars have always tended to over-estimate the impact of Greek and Roman culture, (vs. Persian, Indian and Chinese for example). In modern times, this view is rapidly changing - Persia for example is no longer seen as the tyranny that Greek sources portrayed it as - India of the time is now recognised as an equal and contempory source of world philosophy to Greece, where in past times, the assumption had been a Hellenic origin.

madshurtie said:
Even during Tang China's period, Buddism had lost fashion in India, showing that the two areas weren't particularly closely related.

Im sorry, but this dosent give people an accurate impression. Consider this - Nalanda University in India was home to students from across East Asia, many of whom were Chinese, and it is acknolwedged as being the main hotbed for development in Mahayana Buddhism, the prediminant form of Buddhism in China and Japan today. Can you really say that China and India were removed, when one of China's most famous pieces of literature 'Journey to the West', deals entirely with a pilgrimage to India to collect Buddhist manuscripts, and when it is widely acknolwedged that Tang Dynasty Chinese statues are influenced by Gupta Dynasty Indian statues? How about how the Chinese god of death is a direct transliteration of the Indian god of death? Yama and Yan (and Enma in Japan) respectively.

Im afraid there is a tendancy to exaggerate Hellenic influence on India, as if all pre-Islamic Indian history was a hybrid of the two cultures (despite all of India's main philosophical schools having either formed before or long after Alexander's invasion), and then to downplay India's historically strong cultural links with the east (India is arguably where the idea of the non-Abrahamic 'far east' begins).

Its true that Greek culture had an influence on India - for example, before Greek styles became common in India's northwestern frontier, the Buddha was never depicted as an idol, but usually as a symbol, such as the swastika (just like India in turn influenced some Greek literature and philosophy, some of which is directly traceable to earlier Indian sources) - but to anyone who is deeply interested in Indian history of every period, it becomes very clear that Greek influence was relatively minor compared to say Archemaenid Persian influence, which itself was a small component of a diverse 5000 year urban history.
 

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Id just like to make a further relevent example:

Before any major political interaction between India and the Hellenic or Persian world, India already had a collection of urbanised city-states, directly contemporary to the city states of Greece. Some were even 'republics' with elected rulers. It was during this period, that Indian philosophy, like contemporary philosophy in Greece, Persia and China, flourished, with the writing of the Upanishads (a philosophical commentary on the ancient Indian Rig Veda, which is widely seen as a watershed in world philosohy), the birth of Mahavira, founder of the Jain sect or religion, and Buddha, founder of the Buddhist sect or religion. By the time of the Maurya Dynasty, India had an estimated population of 50 million, which may have been as high as one third of the world - i.e. it was already a well established urban civilization.

Alexander never conquered the majority of these city states - he indeed only managed to subdue a small minority of them on India's extreme northwest. He never faced the dominant Indian power of the time - the Magadhan Empire under the Nanda Dynasty, and at least some historians attribute his retreat from India as being a direct result of his men's unwillingness to fight that huge power, after the heavy resistance they had met against a minor Indian king, known as Porus to the Greeks.

Compare this to the Greco-Persian wars, in which, by comparison, the majority of the contemporary Greek city states (i.e. the direct Hellenic equivalent of India's city states or China's early kingdoms) were at some point occupied by Persian armies, during which the entire Aegean sea was dominated by Persia at some point, and we begin to see how minor by comparison Alexander's quick pillage of the northwest frontier of India was. Even the minor satraps he set up on the edge of India were often composed of Indian kings, ruling their old kingdoms, with Indian armies, and these were swept away soon after by the Magadhan Empire.

I still want India in the game - India is a cool civilization to play - was important in Rome's development - this sustained interaction was different in nature - and if Alexander reached the Indus, I think players should be given an oppertunity to act out a further campaign - but I think we can agree that India and Greece's influence on each other's history was a 'footnote', and not a culturally defining event. There are passing references to 'Sikander' in India, but he is not remembered as an important figure, when hundreds of minor Indian kings get comparible mention. Some Hellenic gods were assimilated into northwestern Hindu culture - but Hinduism is a religion with 300 million different manifestations of god, many more of which were brought into the pantheon by Kushans, Sakas, Hunas, etc, and many many many more of which are native gods, assimilated from animist roots in extreme antiquity.
 

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madshurtie said:
I never said the Seleucids fought the Maurayans after 305. I said the Maurayans had a big effect on later Seleucid prospects. Removing their richest eastern territory significantly weakened the Seleucids, and it paved the way for the independence of the Graeco-Bactrians. Bactria's isolation from the rest of the Seleucid empire, its friendship with Mauraya, and the weakness of the Seleucid empire were all helped by the conquests of Mauraya, and they all caused Bactria's independence. This further weakened the Seleucids, and the rest of the history of the Seleucid empire was a runaway story of factions breaking off and conquest by foreigners. It shows the effect that India had on the Seleucids, and, through them, the West.
That is all bullcrap. There is nothing tying Seleucid defeat in India to the much later independence of Bactria and Parthia, and no reason why it wouldn't have happened otherwise.
 

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madshurtie said:
Taking out India could have even worse effects on ridiculous scenarios. If the Seleucids have no eastern neighbours to weaken them, they could become unrealistically powerful. I think the game needs the right factions in the right places to balance itself properly.
Mauryan India didn't do anything to the Seleucids in the entire time period represented by this game. Perhaps you find history itself ridiculous.
 

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Just to put in my 2 cents...

Lets see if paradox can get this smallish part of the world right. a $15 expansion can alleviate your concerns but if the game sucks because paradox took time to correctly model a dozen Indian states instead of a decent political system, it wont matter how far out the game map goes.
 

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Maharaja said:
Oriental despot said it best
Maharaja said:
Im sorry, but this dosent give people an accurate impression. Consider this - Nalanda University in India was home to students from across East Asia, many of whom were Chinese, and it is acknolwedged as being the main hotbed for development in Mahayana Buddhism, the prediminant form of Buddhism in China and Japan today. Can you really say that China and India were removed, when one of China's most famous pieces of literature 'Journey to the West', deals entirely with a pilgrimage to India to collect Buddhist manuscripts, and when it is widely acknolwedged that Tang Dynasty Chinese statues are influenced by Gupta Dynasty Indian statues? How about how the Chinese god of death is a direct transliteration of the Indian god of death? Yama and Yan (and Enma in Japan) respectively.
What Oriental despot said misses the point. China was a soft target for major religions and foreign culture, and, mostly distinctly during the Tang period, was drawing in fancy culture from everywhere it could. Even though much of Indian culture was received well by China, that didn't make the cultural links between the two strong. During the Tang period, Hinduism had re-established itself as the predominant religion in India, even if China still wanted to bolster its Buddist beliefs with Indian tradition. While China was easily influenced by its more developed neighbours, India, until China's Song dynasty, took very little back from China. Look at Daoism: despite the wide adherence to it in China, next to none was practised in India. 'The Journey to the West' has it in the name: the journey was a major and notable one, such that it would not have been nearly so impressive if China and India hadn't been so far removed.

India drew a far greater influence from the Hellenistic world and the Islamic world than from China. Greece did have an important effect on India, particularly on Buddhism. The Greek philosophy of the Cynics laid the foundations for many later Buddhist beliefs. Mahayanan Buddhism originated with the Graeco-Buddhists, and its early forms were built around Graeco-Buddhist beliefs. Particularly here, the most notable legacy of the Greeks was their effect on Indian art. Indeed, Graeco-Buddhism was the form exported to China, since the greatest cultural centre from which missionaries travelled to China was Gandhara--where Graeco-Buddhism was most predominant.
Later on, Islam affected Indian culture more than China. From the eighth century, Islam was having an increasingly significant effect on India, through the increasing amount of Indian converts, and India was doing the same back, through the adoption of Eastern ideas by Islam. China had become highly developed by this period, but it was still comparatively disconnected from other Old World cultures.

Instead, you seem to be giving the wrong impression. You are trying to give the impression that your case applied a lot further than the examples you use demonstrate it. It's fine considering specific examples, but they need to be continued by a larger case. I accept that China did influence India each other, but this happened less than with India and other cultures, and they were far from a homogeneous culture.

Maharaja said:
Im afraid there is a tendancy to exaggerate Hellenic influence on India, as if all pre-Islamic Indian history was a hybrid of the two cultures (despite all of India's main philosophical schools having either formed before or long after Alexander's invasion), and then to downplay India's historically strong cultural links with the east (India is arguably where the idea of the non-Abrahamic 'far east' begins).

Its true that Greek culture had an influence on India - for example, before Greek styles became common in India's northwestern frontier, the Buddha was never depicted as an idol, but usually as a symbol, such as the swastika (just like India in turn influenced some Greek literature and philosophy, some of which is directly traceable to earlier Indian sources) - but to anyone who is deeply interested in Indian history of every period, it becomes very clear that Greek influence was relatively minor compared to say Archemaenid Persian influence, which itself was a small component of a diverse 5000 year urban history.
You're right, and it's important not to overemphasize any culture's effect. But Greek culture did contribute significantly to India, and it did far more so than Chinese culture. Of course there are other cultures that have affected each other more (look at Europe and America), but this doesn't stop Greece from having influenced India.
 

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Bear in mind that Buddhism often forms co-existent complexes with native cultures. For example the Shinto-Buddhist complex in Japan and the Buddhist-[Chinese folk religion] complex in China. So when you say that Buddhism had dissappeared in India, in reality it had formed a similar complex, albiet one dominated by 'orthadox' Hindu schools.

Also consider this - Indian scholarship has recently started to notace the importance of pilgrimage. Pilgrimage is what linked various regions of India together culturally in a stronger way than Europe - millions from across India would journey to events like the Kumbh Mela, or the holy city of Varanasi, and trade, exchange ideas, etc.

As it happens - monks from China often made decades-long pilgrimages in India, and Indian monks made jouneys to China. The same cannot be said for sustained two-way interaction with any other region - not even Persia (until the Sufis). This interaction led to exchanges well beyond religion - Indian astronomers and mathematicians served in the Chinese court for example - and pilgrmis from China studied metaphysics, medicine, etc.

While this gives the impression that China was simply recieving culture, my own experience with history makes me think that no relationship is ever one way - Indian recorded history has never been maintained with as much regularity as in China - thus im sure China gave as good as it got, and this has simply not been as fully recorded. For example there is a martial art in South India called Cheena Ati (literally 'Chinese fist') which is practiced alongside India's own.

And beyond pilgrimage, India was of course a stopping point between China and the west, for both the silk road and monsoon trade. Silk exported from China in ancient times would often be processed in India, then exported on to Persia and Rome.

Your point is: China and India influenced one another, but less than the Islamic civilizations, and less than the Greeks. My point is: China and India influneced one another, but less than the Islamic civilizations and more than the Greeks. This is the impression I am left with after years of interest in the subject - furthermore Greece as an acendant classical civilization covered a relatively small amount of history compared to a sustained contact between China and India that has essentially lasted from the beggining of the silk trade and the spread of Buddhism into the Tarim Basin, right up to late medieval Indian history.

When you consider the impact Islam had on China - 20 to 50 million Muslims there today, the two countries start looking more and more similar - two geographically based civilizations that grew up on two highly fertile rivers - both following non-Abrahamic religions/philosophies that are in many ways similar - both were first unified just after the era of the Persian empire, and may have both been influenced by Archemanid government - both witnessed large interaction with Islam (India politically moreso) - both were dominated by foreign dynasties in medieval times (Manchus, Mughals, Mongols, etc) - both are now essentially post-colonial states. There is a tendancy these days to think of China as a long unified list of dynasties, and India as being in a perminant period of warring states, but in truth, both civilizations had periods of disunity, different regional cultures (many of which in China's case were suppressed during the cultural revoluton) - both had mythological ideas of themselves like the middle kingdom and the idea of the aryan land - and is the influence of the Chinese written system amongst the literate that much different from the use of Sanskrit and then Persian in Indian history?
 
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7thsign said:
Just to put in my 2 cents...

Lets see if paradox can get this smallish part of the world right. a $15 expansion can alleviate your concerns but if the game sucks because paradox took time to correctly model a dozen Indian states instead of a decent political system, it wont matter how far out the game map goes.

well the inclusion of India is more controversial IMHO. Since it probably requires a drastic change in the game design and balance, I do not suggest the addition of India at this stage (if any addition is possible at all of course), even though I basically agree with its historical position in the "indoeuropean" sphere and its ties with the Hellenistic world.

The original suggestion was to complete the roman world by adding provinces belonging to roman neighborhoods, with whom romans had direct, tangible contact.

Please do not hijack this thread with an India-China diatribe, which is out of place and cryptic.
 

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madshurtie said:
China was a soft target for major religions and foreign culture, and, mostly distinctly during the Tang period, was drawing in fancy culture from everywhere it could. Even though much of Indian culture was received well by China, that didn't make the cultural links between the two strong. (...) even if China still wanted to bolster its Buddist beliefs with Indian tradition. While China was easily influenced by its more developed neighbours, India, until China's Song dynasty, took very little back from China. (...) China was a comparatively new civilization, and it had not achieved a religion as popular as the new ones in the West (Taoism only made much headway around the sixth century AD). It was a soft target for the spread of such a popular religion as Buddism, while the world of Islam was too tough and devout for the same to happen.

China wasn't a soft target, and their civilization wasn't just coming at this time. In fact by the time of Alexander, Chinese culture already had a lifespan that stretched back further into history than any other - Jewish culture is maybe its only surviving peer. We're talking about a civilization that has its historic roots in the 12th century BCE, and likely was already long established before its written history begins. Not only had the Chinese developed their own distinct civilization at this point, but it retained characteristics that outlasted those of other ancient cultures - Egypt, Mesopotamia, Mycenae, Minoa, Medes, Harappa; all the great Bronze Age cultures collapsed and underwent enormous changes, but Chinese civilization endured. Look at the art, architecture, and religion of the Zhou or the Shang; Chinese styles are remarkably unchanged a few thousand years later, and the ancestor worship of the prehistoric Chinese still dominates their traditional customs.

The Chinese weren't underdeveloped in comparison to the Indians; more like they were peers, along with Greece and Near East. They were all sites of an Iron Age renaissance that ushered in revolutionary advances throughout the world. Confucius, Lao Tzu, and Sun Tzu predate the greatest philosophers of the western tradition, but both of these intellectual explosions were roughly contemporary, India and Persia experienced their own about this time as well (ie Siddhartha Gautama, Zoroaster.) Chinese culture was highly advanced, and had its own state religion (Confucianism) which wasn't simply pushed aside by 'fancy' Indian ideas. Confucianism remained the most popular state religion throughout Northeast Asia until the early modern period.


madshurtie said:
Look at Daoism: despite the wide adherence to it in China, next to none was practised in India.

Indian philosophical thought and Chinese were mutually influential. In fact the similarities between Buddhism and Taoism are so strong that when Buddhism was first introduced to China, the Chinese mistook it for a foreign Taoist sect. Earlier you said that Buddhism never had a strong following in China until the 6th century, but Buddhism was being taught in China in the first century BCE. By the first century CE the Han Emperors were sponsoring Buddhist lectures in their court, there was already a Sangha in China, and the most popular sutras had been translated from Sanskrit to Chinese. The fact that Buddhism caught the attention of the Emperors suggests that it had already had a strong following. Part of the reason why Buddhism caught on so quickly in China was not because the Chinese were a soft target for imported culture, it was because Buddhism was highly compatible with long established Chinese belief systems.


madshurtie said:
Greece did have an important effect on India, particularly on Buddhism. The Greek philosophy of the Cynics laid the foundations for many later Buddhist beliefs. Mahayanan Buddhism originated with the Graeco-Buddhists, and its early forms were built around Graeco-Buddhist beliefs.

Mahayana Buddhism sprang from ideas developed within the Sangha, not the ruling class. The impact Greek art had on Buddhist culture is undeniable. From what I've been reading, it sounds like the philosophical influence it had on the development of Buddhism is tenuous. Honestly, the argument that the Cynics - who came around about a century after the death of Siddhartha Gautama, once Buddhism was already in full swing - "laid the foundations" for Mahayana Buddhism reeks of eurocentric bs.

The fact that the Greeks would've been a tiny minority in the Indo-Greek Kingdoms, and that they embraced Buddhism supports my earlier argument that the Indo-Greeks became gradually Indianized. An army of illiterate Greek soldiers wouldn't have permanently affected the social fabric of a highly advanced civilization like India. Alexander himself encouraged his soldiers to intermarry with conquered peoples.. his armies didn't bring their families along with them on their campaigns to colonize India, which would have been necessary to create an enduring satellite of Greek civilization. I imagine the Greeks would have become absorbed into the native culture gradually just as in the case of the Crusades: the Franks became more Oriental than European after just a generation of settling in the Levant.

madshurtie said:
Later on, Islam affected Indian culture more than China. (...) China had become highly developed by this period, but it was still comparatively disconnected from other Old World cultures.

Envoys from the Caliphate introduced Islam to China in the 7th century. It has one of the oldest traditions of Islam, and has something like 50 million Muslims, so it has one the largest Muslim populations of any country in the world. Zhang He was a Muslim, there was also an independent Sultanate in Yunnan briefly during the 19th century (Dali Sultanate.) Not to mention the fact that China has a very ancient tradition of Judaism (Kaifeng Jews) and Christianity (Nestorians) as well, predating the introduction of those religions to much of the west. The wife (or rather, one of the wives. Marco Polo talks about this.) of Kublai Khan was a Chinese Nestorian Christian. It wasn't insulated from the rest of the world, although China did retain its cultural identity in spite of it. In fact China was very well connected to the rest of the world through trade routes, especially by the first century BCE.. but being the xenophobes the Chinese Emperor's typically were, they went to great lengths to see that foreign influences were limited.

The Chinese were no more cut off from Rome than India was. The Han considered the Roman Empire the only civilization that rivaled their own, even attempted to send delegates to Rome, though they all failed to get there. There's even a population in Northwest China which claims to be descended from Roman soldiers. The Chinese called Rome 'Great Qin' because they considered it the western side of the 'mirror' of Chinese civilization.
 
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lucaluca said:
Please do not hijack this thread with an India-China diatribe, which is out of place and cryptic.
Too late, I want you to fly this thread straight to Cuba! Anyways, I wouldn't have brought it up if I thought it was totally out of place. We're talking about expanding the map so we've got to consider what would be included and how it would relate to a game centered around the Mediterranean world.

Again, I'm not trying to argue that India didn't have an influence on the west and vice versa. But I think the cultural (and especially political) links are too weak to justify putting it in the game.

Also, for anyone who's following this argument and just to clarify - when I talk about India's 'Sphere of Influence' I'm referring to something historians call the Indosphere
..just to prove I'm not pulling all this out of my ass, but out of someone else's - someone with a degree!

It covers this area: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Image:Indian_cultural_zone.svg
You might notice that southwestern China is highlighted as an area that was heavily influenced by Indian culture, while nothing west of Pakistan and Afghanistan is.

And in case you're wondering, this map would correspond to the game's timeframe. There were already major Indian influences in most of these places during the games timespan and in all of these places (except Mauritius) by the first couple of centuries CE (ie Indianized states such as Chenla, which covered most of Southeast Asia, and Srivijaya covering most of the Indonesian archipelago - it's called Indonesia for a reason.)
 
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Oriental Despot said:
China wasn't a soft target, and their civilization wasn't just coming at this time. In fact by the time of Alexander, Chinese culture already had a lifespan that stretched back further into history than any other - Jewish culture is maybe its only surviving peer. We're talking about a civilization that has its historic roots in the 12th century BCE, and likely was already long established before its written history begins.

Although I agree with most of what you are saying - I think this needs a little elaboration - the four earliest urbam civilizations as far as we can tell are Egypt, Mesopotamia, Indus Valley and China, of which China was the latest and least widespread.

Of course being the latest out of the four first is nothing to be ashamed of :)

And although people sometimes say 'there was a break in other civilizations', the reality is, the Indus Valley civilization isnt really a sudden break from Indian civilization - it may have worshipped early animism, but so did early China - its settlements may have moved to the Ganges valley over time - but the evidence dosent suggest that there was any break - just an evolution.

Chinese dynastic records from these early dynasties are just as mtyhologicised as the Indian puranical records of dynasties decended from sun gods, etc.

Even Egypt and Mesopotamia still bear progression with their ancient past, although to a lesser extent than China and India perhaps.
 

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Maharaja said:
Bear in mind that Buddhism often forms co-existent complexes with native cultures. For example the Shinto-Buddhist complex in Japan and the Buddhist-[Chinese folk religion] complex in China. So when you say that Buddhism had disappeared in India, in reality it had formed a similar complex, albiet one dominated by 'orthadox' Hindu schools.
Buddhism is a very accommodating religion--which is partially why China adopted it so readily. While Buddhism deeply pervaded later Hinduism, Hinduism still reasserted itself as the main religion; this is something that didn't happen in China.

Oriental Despot said:
China wasn't a soft target, and their civilization wasn't just coming at this time. In fact by the time of Alexander, Chinese culture already had a lifespan that stretched back further into history than any other - Jewish culture is maybe its only surviving peer. We're talking about a civilization that has its historic roots in the 12th century BCE, and likely was already long established before its written history begins. Not only had the Chinese developed their own distinct civilization at this point, but it retained characteristics that outlasted those of other ancient cultures - Egypt, Mesopotamia, Mycenae, Minoa, Medes, Harappa; all the great Bronze Age cultures collapsed and underwent enormous changes, but Chinese civilization endured. Look at the art, architecture, and religion of the Zhou or the Shang; Chinese styles are remarkably unchanged a few thousand years later, and the ancestor worship of the prehistoric Chinese still dominates their traditional customs.

The Chinese weren't underdeveloped in comparison to the Indians; more like they were peers, along with Greece and Near East. They were all sites of an Iron Age renaissance that ushered in revolutionary advances throughout the world. Confucius, Lao Tzu, and Sun Tzu predate the greatest philosophers of the western tradition, but both of these intellectual explosions were roughly contemporary, India and Persia experienced their own about this time as well (ie Siddhartha Gautama, Zoroaster.) Chinese culture was highly advanced, and had its own state religion (Confucianism) which wasn't simply pushed aside by 'fancy' Indian ideas. Confucianism remained the most popular state religion throughout Northeast Asia until the early modern period.

Indian philosophical thought and Chinese were mutually influential. In fact the similarities between Buddhism and Taoism are so strong that when Buddhism was first introduced to China, the Chinese mistook it for a foreign Taoist sect. Earlier you said that Buddhism never had a strong following in China until the 6th century, but Buddhism was being taught in China in the first century BCE. By the first century CE the Han Emperors were sponsoring Buddhist lectures in their court, there was already a Sangha in China, and the most popular sutras had been translated from Sanskrit to Chinese. The fact that Buddhism caught the attention of the Emperors suggests that it had already had a strong following. Part of the reason why Buddhism caught on so quickly in China was not because the Chinese were a soft target for imported culture, it was because Buddhism was highly compatible with long established Chinese belief systems.
Yes, China did have a lasting culture. It also had a comparatively small amount of invasions by foreign cultures. Indeed, China's lasting culture is a testament to its lack of neighbouring cultures to displace it.

After the Period of Disunion, a guiding force was particularly welcome in the troubled and warring China, and Buddhism, with its emphasis on personal salvation and otherworldliness, was a new life for many Chinese. It was also very similar to present Chinese beliefs, and this was a reason for, rather than a consequence of, its readied acceptance. For both reasons, it was adopted far more easily than by the followers of Zoroaster and Mohammed.

China's culture was not on a par with Greece or India anywhere near the game's period. One of Greece's most impressive achievements was its 'classical' period of intellectual outpouring by the fifth century BC, where art, philosophy, and literary works made huge strides. India's 'classical' period, where it made similar achievements, is regarded as being during the Gupta Empire--the fourth century AD--and China's was during the Tang Empire--the seventh century AD. At this point, Buddhism became common enough in China at this period to rival Daoism, and one of the main reasons for the Chinese 'Golden Age' was the influx of great Buddhist thought. The Chinese didn't go on long pilgrimages through the steppe or expand their control towards India for no reason; India was the source of their new found cultural outburst, and they saw it as an ideal to emulate. They had been far less sophisticated than India, and ardently adopted India's more developed culture.
Before this time, China had achieved a great empire, and it had produced significant philosophers, but this didn't mean it had achieved the all round proliferation of culture that the 'classical' age brought. Persia achieved the biggest empire of its time, and it had its own great philosophers, but it wasn't in any 'Golden Age' of cultural outpouring. Indeed, India, Persia, Greece, and China all created new religions and philosophies in the 'Axial Age', but only Greece achieved the 'classical' creativity in art, literature, science, or philosophy.
Until the Tang dynasty, China was less developed than India, and this was why it marvelled so much at Indian culture.

Maharaja said:
While this gives the impression that China was simply recieving culture, my own experience with history makes me think that no relationship is ever one way - Indian recorded history has never been maintained with as much regularity as in China - thus im sure China gave as good as it got, and this has simply not been as fully recorded.
There is a reason China seemed like the receiving culture: it was it. When cultures merge, the one that becomes predominant is the one most appealing (whether from sophistication such as technology, appealing ideas, or threat against not accepting), and/or the one that started as most predominant. Sometimes merging cultures are fairly balanced and they both adapt equally, but this is rare. When Christianity spread, it may have acquired bits from native cultures, but it affected them more than they did it. Look at the homogeneous beliefs and worship that it spread right across Europe. Islam did the same, as did Greek culture. Before the Hellenistic age, Greek culture was minimally affected by others. Meanwhile, Sicily and Macedon lost almost all of their native culture, and the Etruscans and Rome drew hugely from the Greeks. Celtic culture became the dominant across most of Europe, as did the later Germans. The early civilizations of India and China gave more to their immediate neighbours than they received, thus making Hinduism predominant in the former and Confucianism in the latter. The discovery of the New World is perhaps the most absolute example. How much native American culture pervades our everyday lives?

If your experience tells you that cultures shared equally, then it has missed something huge. With India, written accounts (which are easily good enough to show cultural acquisitions) aren't the only way of seeing how much came from China. Archaeology and cultural legacies are similarly useful, and none of them indicate a cultural adoption on the scale that China received.

Maharaja said:
Your point is: China and India influenced one another, but less than the Islamic civilizations, and less than the Greeks. My point is: China and India influneced one another, but less than the Islamic civilizations and more than the Greeks. This is the impression I am left with after years of interest in the subject - furthermore Greece as an acendant classical civilization covered a relatively small amount of history compared to a sustained contact between China and India that has essentially lasted from the beggining of the silk trade and the spread of Buddhism into the Tarim Basin, right up to late medieval Indian history.
When I said that India drew more from Greece and Islam than from China, I was talking about their periods of influence. During the Hellenistic Age, Greek influence on India was far greater than Chinese. It was part of a pattern of hybrid cultures in India that were formed from Western peoples, including the Indo-Scythians, the Indo-Parthians, and the Indo-Sassanids. All of them had clear links with their native cultures. Due to India's position as a centre of trade, a valuable territory for foreigners, and a vulnerable neighbour of the steppe, Northwest India was almost always under the sphere of influence of a non-Indian power, and its culture was heavily influenced by these. Northwest India was an eclectic culture, but it never as close to Chinese culture as it was to other South Asian cultures. Indeed, South Asia (which includes India and Persia) is classed as one geographical entity because of its close cultural connections. East Indian contact with the rest of the world relied on Northwest India, and both shared cultural influences. East India perpetuated Indian culture, while Northwest India's eclectic mix kept the rest of India in contact with foreign culture. Northwest India was the part of India most influenced by Chinese culture, and it was still influenced by it less than by other South Asian cultures.


Oriental Despot said:
Also, for anyone who's following this argument and just to clarify - when I talk about India's 'Sphere of Influence' I'm referring to something historians call the Indosphere
..just to prove I'm not pulling all this out of my ass, but out of someone else's - someone with a degree!

It covers this area: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Image:...ltural_zone.svg
You might notice that southwestern China is highlighted as an area that was heavily influenced by Indian culture, while nothing west of Pakistan and Afghanistan is.

And in case you're wondering, this map would correspond to the game's timeframe. There were already major Indian influences in most of these places during the games timespan and in all of these places (except Mauritius) by the first couple of centuries CE (ie Indianized states such as Chenla, which covered most of Southeast Asia, and Srivijaya covering most of the Indonesian archipelago - it's called Indonesia for a reason.)
As you can see from the map, Indian culture extended farther into Persia than into China. Indo-China was under Indian influence (although less than East Persia), but, like Indonesia, it got its prefix for a reason: India affected it and its culture far more than China did. Almost all Indo-Chinese peoples (with the exception of the Vietnamese, who were on the far side of Indo-China and did a lot of trading with China) are regarded as primarily Indianized, with little Chinese influence. While the area looks like it should be part of China, it had two geographical boundaries: a thin strip of mountainous land between the Himalayas and the China Sea; and a change of climate zones from temperate to tropical. The latter was a barrier it didn't have between it and India, and a lack of climate barriers makes the transfer of peoples and culture far easier (it always has).

The Sinosphere (China's equivalent) was restricted to the north and east of the Himalayas (see Sinosphere ). This division has always been, and China's history has been built around it. Until the introduction of steppe nomads, China was almost wholly cut off from the rest of Eurasia, and even then, with the Silk Road that steppe nomads permitted, China was still removed from western culture. From Britain to India around 500 BC, a related language, a related ethnicity, and a shared knowledge of technology such as iron working had appeared. From the Mediterranean to India, a trend of states that were numerous, large, urbanized, and densely populated had appeared, yet China lagged significantly. After this period, and the stimulation of cultures that the trade from the steppe brought, China rapidly caught up, but the geographical division between China and the rest of the world had already been made clear. China's lag in sophistication meant that it valued all contact it got with Westward peoples, and it this contributed to its ardent adoption of Indian culture. In the Tang and Song periods, when it became the most sophisticated culture in the world, its connection with the rest of Eurasia weakened, and it began to become more isolationist again. China's culture is far more xenophobic than elsewhere, and it had very few invasions from neighbouring states; both points are results of its isolation from other societies.
 

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madshurtie: how about you back up your arguments with specific historic examples like everyone else has been so we can at least see where you're trying to come from? With you dictating whats true and what's not and making arguments without any evidence backing them up this spat is becoming kinda tedious.

ie: How you came to the conclusion that Han China was backwards relative to the rest of the civilized world, or that Indian influence was stronger in East Persia than Southeast Asia. Is this your own opinion or are you paraphrasing something you read?

One last thing; that sinosphere map you're using is more relevant to the modern world.. and the area of influence fits neatly within modern borders, like it cuts out parts of Manchuria that are in Russia now.
 
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minority

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madshurtie said:
Yes, China did have a lasting culture. It also had a comparatively small amount of invasions by foreign cultures. Indeed, China's lasting culture is a testament to its lack of neighbouring cultures to displace it.
Or rather, how China was seemingly able to absorb every invading culture. The early history of China is still murky in terms of cultural affinities, and many of what became Chinese states were as much a product of adoption of Chinese culture (think a more effective Hellenisation). Note that before unification, China was very much a diverse patchwork of cultures with many similarities, but they had different scripts and probably quite a big linguistic variation.

China also had plenty of time to develop a strong cultural identity, which meant that while barbarians were able to break create rifts in Romanised cultures, the division of China did not have the same effect, mainly because of a sense of a unified culture. So it's not just a case of lack of neighbouring cultures to displace it, but the fact that its interaction with neighbours tended to align their cultures closer to each other instead and made assimilation in the future easier.

This unified identity is what kept Chinese civilisation a continuous one. I mean, the Goth invasions of former Roman territories did not displace the Romance languages, but because they had not formed a monolithic cultural identity as China did, these communities did not survive as a single identity, unlike perhaps the effects on the Chinese identity by the Mongol or Manchu invasions.
madshurtie said:
After the Period of Disunion, a guiding force was particularly welcome in the troubled and warring China, and Buddhism, with its emphasis on personal salvation and otherworldliness, was a new life for many Chinese. It was also very similar to present Chinese beliefs, and this was a reason for, rather than a consequence of, its readied acceptance. For both reasons, it was adopted far more easily than by the followers of Zoroaster and Mohammed.
You seem to get the idea that Buddhism was adopted wholesale in China, which just isn't true. Moreover, Buddhism took on a whole new dimension and produced many variations once it entered China.
madshurtie said:
China's culture was not on a par with Greece or India anywhere near the game's period. One of Greece's most impressive achievements was its 'classical' period of intellectual outpouring by the fifth century BC, where art, philosophy, and literary works made huge strides. India's 'classical' period, where it made similar achievements, is regarded as being during the Gupta Empire--the fourth century AD--and China's was during the Tang Empire--the seventh century AD. At this point, Buddhism became common enough in China at this period to rival Daoism, and one of the main reasons for the Chinese 'Golden Age' was the influx of great Buddhist thought. The Chinese didn't go on long pilgrimages through the steppe or expand their control towards India for no reason; India was the source of their new found cultural outburst, and they saw it as an ideal to emulate. They had been far less sophisticated than India, and ardently adopted India's more developed culture.
Not to be culturally nationalistic, but how do you measure being 'on par'?

Furthermore, you do realise that before unification, there were numerous schools of thoughts in China right (the so-called Hundred Schools of Thoughts)? While you may want to evaluate Chinese cultural achievements based on what survives until today, you're ostensibly ignoring the many, many schools of thoughts apart from Confucianism and Daoism existing before central authority suppressed them.

Pre-Qin China was a hotbed of cultural and philosophical thought that predated any dominance by any thought such as Buddhism, Daoism or Confucianism. That's why the Warring States weren't as united as they would've been if there was an overarching philosophy, and it also explains why Qin Shi Huang saw the need for standardisation.

So while you can rightly say it's not 'on par' by your own subjective standards, I disagree because of the availability of many varying schools of thoughts in China during the game's period.

It is advisable, however, to not assume that your subjective standards about 'sophistication' or 'creativity' is the same ones everyone else subscribes to.

madshurtie said:
Until the Tang dynasty, China was less developed than India, and this was why it marvelled so much at Indian culture.
It never marvelled at 'Indian' culture, because there was no concept of 'India' then.

Subsequently, it is also erroneous to say that Indian culture was not affected by China, simply because there is no 'Indian' culture. States closer to China did show adoption of Chinese court practices and to a certain extent, Confucian elements.

But the Dravidian south had little influence on China, just as China had little influence on it.

madshurtie said:
There is a reason China seemed like the receiving culture: it was it.
-snip-

How much native American culture pervades our everyday lives?

This is a rather simplistic view of cultural proliferation. Cultural growth is not necessarily geographically limited. Thus some elements of culture that developed in India may have also simultaneously developed in China.

The fact is, you're trying to determine cultural in great detail, but with too much detail to be justified by ancient sources, which are never sufficient to determine the chronological order of cultural diffusion.

At the end of the day, it can also be equally argued that Indian influence on China was itself greatly filtered by Chinese culture and was never adopted in its original forms.

madshurtie said:
If your experience tells you that cultures shared equally, then it has missed something huge. With India, written accounts (which are easily good enough to show cultural acquisitions) aren't the only way of seeing how much came from China. Archaeology and cultural legacies are similarly useful, and none of them indicate a cultural adoption on the scale that China received.

I disagree, simply because cultural diffusion is unmeasurable. Again, as said, while cultural elements such as Buddhism can be easily identified to be from India, what about the smaller details? Can adoption of court practices, administration philosophies or societal order in smaller doses add up to the same magnitude as the spread of Buddhism? How do you measure these things?

It's a fallacy from the get-go.

madshurtie said:
When I said that India drew more from Greece and Islam than from China, I was talking about their periods of influence. During the Hellenistic Age, Greek influence on India was far greater than Chinese. It was part of a pattern of hybrid cultures in India that were formed from Western peoples, including the Indo-Scythians, the Indo-Parthians, and the Indo-Sassanids. All of them had clear links with their native cultures. Due to India's position as a centre of trade, a valuable territory for foreigners, and a vulnerable neighbour of the steppe, Northwest India was almost always under the sphere of influence of a non-Indian power, and its culture was heavily influenced by these. Northwest India was an eclectic culture, but it never as close to Chinese culture as it was to other South Asian cultures. Indeed, South Asia (which includes India and Persia) is classed as one geographical entity because of its close cultural connections. East Indian contact with the rest of the world relied on Northwest India, and both shared cultural influences. East India perpetuated Indian culture, while Northwest India's eclectic mix kept the rest of India in contact with foreign culture. Northwest India was the part of India most influenced by Chinese culture, and it was still influenced by it less than by other South Asian cultures.

Well first of all, South Asia rarely includes Persia (the UN includes Iran as Southern Asia instead. Add to that, the geological entity of the Indian subcontinent doesn't actually include Iran. Furthermore, Persia has always been more involved with West more than the East.

And as previously said, Indian states, especially ones close to China, did adopt morsels of Chinese culture. In the end the argument over quantity is an impossible one to make, especially if we try to speak for India as a whole, which was never very homogeneous to begin with.


cheers
 

unmerged(59432)

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madshurtie said:
China's culture was not on a par with Greece or India anywhere near the game's period. One of Greece's most impressive achievements was its 'classical' period of intellectual outpouring by the fifth century BC, where art, philosophy, and literary works made huge strides. India's 'classical' period, where it made similar achievements, is regarded as being during the Gupta Empire--the fourth century AD--and China's was during the Tang Empire--the seventh century AD.

As someone mentioned above, this is an oversimplied model of cultural proliferation.

For one thing, the concept of 'golden ages' has been rubbished by the historical community.

Golden ages are usually nothing more than glorified and idealised myths about the past.

Gupta India, classical Greece and Tang China were no doubt great periods, but the idea that they exclusively flowered during this one era is wrong. India and China had cultural outpourings equal, and contemporary to, classical Greece, around the middle of the first millennium BCE. Perhaps names like Lao Tzu, Chanakya, Sun Tzu, Mahavira, Carvaka, Panini, etc, arnt as well known today as Aristotle, Plato, Socrates, etc, but they are widely seen as being part of flowerings that were equal.

At this point, Buddhism became common enough in China at this period to rival Daoism, and one of the main reasons for the Chinese 'Golden Age' was the influx of great Buddhist thought. The Chinese didn't go on long pilgrimages through the steppe or expand their control towards India for no reason; India was the source of their new found cultural outburst, and they saw it as an ideal to emulate. They had been far less sophisticated than India, and ardently adopted India's more developed culture.

Before this time, China had achieved a great empire, and it had produced significant philosophers, but this didn't mean it had achieved the all round proliferation of culture that the 'classical' age brought. Persia achieved the biggest empire of its time, and it had its own great philosophers, but it wasn't in any 'Golden Age' of cultural outpouring. Indeed, India, Persia, Greece, and China all created new religions and philosophies in the 'Axial Age', but only Greece achieved the 'classical' creativity in art, literature, science, or philosophy.

This is nice to hear - it really makes India, my favorite civilization out of those mentioned, look good :) But im afraid it is probably wrong.

The idea of a golden age, is a romantic facination with a certain era, often brough about by cultural nationalism - i.e. the Tang dynasty is seen as a validation of modern Chinese nationalism, Hindu nationalists were keen to idealise the Hindu governed Gupta dynasty, and European ideas of cultural superiority required a similar remote golden age.

But golden ages in reality are arbitary periods, assigned that title based on arbitrary ideas of what a cultural flowering represents.

While I dont subscribe to this popular kung fu movie notion of China being a super civilization, and am glad that your words show how stupid that idealised view is, I also do not subscribe to the notion that it was unequal to Indian or Greek civilization, or that India was unequal to Greek civilization, because for every 'classical' example Greece produced, one can find a similar examples in China and India at the same period.

There is a reason China seemed like the receiving culture: it was it. When cultures merge, the one that becomes predominant is the one most appealing (whether from sophistication such as technology, appealing ideas, or threat against not accepting), and/or the one that started as most predominant. Sometimes merging cultures are fairly balanced and they both adapt equally, but this is rare. When Christianity spread, it may have acquired bits from native cultures, but it affected them more than they did it. Look at the homogeneous beliefs and worship that it spread right across Europe. Islam did the same, as did Greek culture. Before the Hellenistic age, Greek culture was minimally affected by others. Meanwhile, Sicily and Macedon lost almost all of their native culture, and the Etruscans and Rome drew hugely from the Greeks. Celtic culture became the dominant across most of Europe, as did the later Germans. The early civilizations of India and China gave more to their immediate neighbours than they received, thus making Hinduism predominant in the former and Confucianism in the latter. The discovery of the New World is perhaps the most absolute example. How much native American culture pervades our everyday lives?

Granted a culture can receive a different amount than it gives, but what im trying to say is, this is not equal to merit. Chinese philosophy dating from the 5th century BCE is not inferior to Indian philosophy from the same period just because one later became more popular - it dosent mean China is 'less developed' as you suggest - just differently developed.

You are talking about popularity of culture as if popularity assigns value.

I.E. just because Buddhism was more influencial, does that mean Taoism, Confucianism, etc, have less merit? Or are they equal?

Scholars arnt meant to assign superiority based upon popularity - infact they arnt meant to assign superiority at all - but you are trying to suggest that China was less developed (development essentially meaning superiority here, since it is given without further context) than India, just because Indian philosophy was more popular within China at that time.

Indeed, South Asia (which includes India and Persia) is classed as one geographical entity because of its close cultural connections.

This seems to be wrong.

For one thing, many of these hybrid cultures came from Central Asia, not the Iranian plateau. The Sythians were Central Asian. The Hunas were Central Asian. The Kushans were Central Asian.

south_asia.gif


And only the UN seems to define Iran as part of South Asia (or as part of a region they call 'Southern Asia'). The two cultures are quite distinct despite their many links. Based on culture, I would definatly classify them as West Asian, like the Assyrian cultures, etc. And that is frankly how South Asia is usually defined anyway - always without Iran, and often without Afghanistan.

350px-Scythia-Parthia_100_BC.png


350px-Yueh-ChihMigrations.jpg


Many of the northwestern hybrid cultures of India were formed between interaction of nomadic horse warrior type people with Indian culture, similar to the Mongols and Huns. They were often Khanates. Similar to the nomadic interaction with China infact, now that I think about it - a nomadic peoples that moved in but were largely culturally assimilated by the established and literate civilization.
 
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