Usually there are two broad sides in the "why did the West dominate" debate : one that emphasizes cultural and religious features fostering progress in the West while hampering elsewhere (Niall Ferguson and the likes), and another one focusing on institutional differences disentivizing innovation or capital accumulation in the Rest, while holding all human beings regardless of culture/religion as rational economic agents concerned with the betterment of their material conditions.
Both views hold true to some extent, I don't see how one could be discarded completely. Yes, modern Europe had religious narrowmindedness but the rise of the West broadly coincides with a loosening of the intellectual grip of those priests/clergymen that opposed new ideas the most. Add to that the printing press, the overall rise in literacy, especially in protestant country (by the end of the XVIIIth century, the German male population was about 50% literate, same for Englishmen ; some catholic regions such as the North of France followed closely while the Southernmost parts of Europe really lagged behind).
Both views hold true to some extent, I don't see how one could be discarded completely. Yes, modern Europe had religious narrowmindedness but the rise of the West broadly coincides with a loosening of the intellectual grip of those priests/clergymen that opposed new ideas the most. Add to that the printing press, the overall rise in literacy, especially in protestant country (by the end of the XVIIIth century, the German male population was about 50% literate, same for Englishmen ; some catholic regions such as the North of France followed closely while the Southernmost parts of Europe really lagged behind).