No, it was a mesure intended to promote British trade in India; if it helped the Indian people that was okay, and if it did not, that was okay too. Just look at the behaviour of the British viceroy Lord Lytton and the State Secretary for India Lord Salisbury during the 1877-78 Deccan famine, and you will see clearly what was the attitude both in Calcutta and Whitehall towards the "Indian people".
To cut it short: any help to relieve the famine had to come from the Indian budget, and only if that did not interfere in any way with the oncoming British invasion of Afghanistan, which was to be paid also entirely by the Indian taxpayer.
I am struggling to see how either of you have proven your conclusions here.
a) According to the Wikipedia article, the
Indian Famine Codes were a set of rules created in the 1880s to assess the severity of a famine and proscribe certain government responses to it.
b)
@DoomBunny claims the officials responsible intended to help people, but does not provide any evidence.
c)
@Semper Victor claims official in the 1870s did not intend to assist people, and helpfully gives a specific example: Lytton in the Deccan famine
d) The NYT summary of
Late Victorian Holocausts confirms that Lytton was callous to Indians' suffering, but also says that his policies were in line with
laissez-faire consensus and that he was sacked thereafter as possibly insane.
All these claims seem entirely compatible with each other. The conclusions from the 1870s would seem to be: Lytton and
laissez-faire both exacerbate disasters. In the 1880s, Lytton has gone and there appears to be a system of government intervention.
Is Semper Victor relying on a hidden assumption that all British officials in India always had the same motivations for their actions at all times? That seems rather a strong assumption.
Or is there some other assumption or aspect that's gone over my head? I don't know a lot about 19th century India.