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since when are we making small unimportant cities into provinces ?

Offcourse you are right when you point out that Nis shouldnt be capital of kosovo. nis was and still is part of serbia proper and not kosovo.

Capital of Kosovo should probably be pec / peje as it was seat of serbian orthodox church before serbs got anexed by turks. i believe that pristina / prishtine came to be capital first later.

i've already pointed out this as an error in another thread but i doubt they are going to be changing anything. its probably to hard for them to find how many inhabitants pec or pristina had in 1400.

so we have to accept that nis is wrongly placed in kosovo :(
 

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Kosovo-Pristina; Banat-Novi Sad; Serbia-Belgrade

I am from Yugoslaia and i know
1.Capital of Kosovo is Pristina (No Nish, Nish is in Serbia)
2.Capital of Serbia is Belgrade (no Beograd,Beograd is on Serbian language)
3.Capital of Banat is Novi Sad
 

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Originally posted by Gorion
Belgrade has its name in Serbian???

I want Asturias to be called Asturies, capital Uvieu now!!!:D

Gorion, Serbian it's a Natinal language, Bable a regional and not recognized by Spanish constitution.
 

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Originally posted by Gorion
Yeah, and I guess Catalan and Basque are regional languages as well, no? And Castilian is the National Spanish Language, no?

Yes, they are, with the difference That Catalunya should revolt with it's own Language, maybe if they revolt its cities should change their names, Barcelona=Barna, Gerona=Girona, Perpignan=Perpinya, etc..., Castillian is the official Spanish language as you said.
 

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Catalan, Galician and Basque are official langauges.

And Castilian was not the official language untill the War of Succesion. Before that, the institutions of Catalonia used their own language.

And why should Catalonia revolt with its own language and Asturias not? Because Catalan is official nowadays?
 

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Originally posted by Gorion
Catalan, Galician and Basque are official langauges.

And Castilian was not the official language untill the War of Succesion. Before that, the institutions of Catalonia used their own language.

And why should Catalonia revolt with its own language and Asturias not? Because Catalan is official nowadays?

Because Catalunya really revolted, and Catalan is more ancient that Bable, because there is no "real" Bable, it's different in the different parts of Asturias.
 

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Because Catalunya really revolted

Asturias did revolt, although not in the EU period.

and Catalan is more ancient that Bable,

How? Since both languages evolved from Latin...

because there is no "real" Bable, it's different in the different parts of Asturias.

The same way Castilian is different in the different parts of the Peninsula and Latin America?
 

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Originally posted by Gorion
The same way Castilian is different in the different parts of the Peninsula and Latin America?

Yes, but the difference its tahn the Peninsule and Lathin America is much bigger than Asturias, all asturian talks the same Spanish but not the same Bable. Asturian revolution is later in time since EU II end.
 

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Originally posted by Gorion
Most of the languages were not unificated in the EU period.

And the revolt I was talking about happened in the Middle Ages, before EU

There was a lot of them out of EU time, it could be the one of Pelayo or someone versus the kings of Leon or Castille.