James Mill's Observations on Indian Political History (1817)

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civfanatic

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I was reading the famous History of British India written by James Mill in 1817 (one of the earliest attempts at writing a comprehensive work of Indian history), and came across some very interesting - and no doubt controversial - passages that I would like to share:

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In his book, Mill attempts to "rank" or compare Indian civilization (what he calls "Hindu civilization") to other civilizations throughout world history, based on a number of different factors. One of the criteria that Mill uses for this comparison is political cohesion and long-term stability of state formations. In the excerpts above, Mill states that it is perfectly possible - and indeed, expected - for a people who have passed just a "small number of stages in the career of civilization" to create large and enduring state formations. Mill gives the ancient Persian empire, Chinese empire, and Ottoman empire as examples of such state formations. However, Mill clearly states that the formation of such empires is not proof in and of itself that an exceptionally high standard of civilization (which Mill would associate with utilitarianism and the promotion of the greater well-being of Man) was reached, but merely proof that a particular people had "passed but a small number of stages" in the career of civilization. For instance, Mill indicates that the Russians, whom he believes to be a "barbarous" people with a tyrannical and primitive government, are nonetheless further advanced than people like the Native Americans, because the former had created a large and powerful state while the latter had never created such a state in their entire history. In other words, the ability to form enduring states is, according to Mill, a necessary condition for attaining higher civilization, but not a sufficient condition in and of itself.

Mill associates more primitive peoples with more primitive (less stable and less robust) political structures that are unable to last for extended periods of time. To quote Mill directly, "Among uncivilized nations, however, it is most common to find a perpetual succession of revolutions, and communities in general small." He associates such a primitive state with early medieval Europe, when it required men of exceptional abilities like Charlemagne to keep states together, in the absence of which the state would collapse. He also draws a direct comparison with the empires established by the Mughals and by Sevagee (Shivaji), which both proved unable to effectively bind various communities to the center. As Mill notes, the empire of Aurangzeb collapsed almost immediately after his death, while the Maratha empire soon "broke into several different governments, the owners of which hardly acknowledged even a nominal homage to the throne of Sevagee." Mill also speculates that, in the absence of the British conquest of India, the Maratha "empire" would have soon disintegrated into its constituent elements.

Mill published his work 200 years ago, but since then, research on Indian political history has largely confirmed his assertion that the history of India was largely composed of "such an alternation of communities, and occasional and temporary extensions of power in particular hands." Ironically, the greatest support for this thesis comes from the comprehensive historical research and history-writing done by Indian nationalist historians like R.C. Majumdar. In his massive, monumental tomes on Indian history, covering every single dynasty (large and small) that had ruled in any part of India in its entire history, R.C. Majumdar (and other nationalist historians like him) were providing support for James Mill's original thesis on Indian history, whether they knew it or not.

Although the topic of Mill's work is specifically India, we can take his observations and apply them generally throughout the whole world. For example, we see from an examination of world history that the Middle East formed the earliest states and empires, and thus, can be associated with the birth of civilization. This was followed by the powerful states of China, as well as those of the Classical West. Ancient states also emerged in India, but no ancient state in India was able to create an enduring imperial formation comparable to Han China or Rome (the closest equivalent, the Mauryan empire, lasted for hardly a century and had just three major kings). However, Indian states were themselves far more advanced than the political formations that existed in Southeast Asia, or those that existed in much of Sub-Saharan Africa, where tribalism and pre-state configurations remained prevalent in many areas until modern times. In this way, we can create a framework for measuring the relative "advancement" of any particular people on the ladder of civilization.

I would be interested to hear what other members have to say about the controversial observations made by James Mill.
 

Sarmatia1871

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So you don't find anything that merits an in-depth discussion in the passages that I quoted?

Well, it's quite interesting as an example of how 19th century British elites understood India and attempted to rationalize colonial rule. But not much else.
 
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Henry IX

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The attempt to rank civilisations is simply a reflection of the biases of the author and has no real value. It occupies a similar space in modern historical studies as the attempts to typify the 'races' of humanity has in modern human biology.

In addition the near total ignorance of the history of the various peoples and empires that have dominated Persia demonstrated by the author "the ancient kingdom of Persia which stood for several ages exempt from revolution" is simply a statement of ignorant bias (I don't know about any revolutions, so they must not have happened). The same applies to his statements about China. As such the whole thesis is based upon faulty and incorrect premises.

The observation that power structures in India tended to be local and that regional overlords consistently failed to impose long lasting hegemonies is correct, and this does lead to some interesting questions about how and why various groups do and do not form large and long lasting hegemonies. However, the author's thesis, which appears to be that the Indian Hindus were at a lower level of civilisation, has no validity.
 
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Gordy

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The attempt to rank civilisations is simply a reflection of the biases of the author and has no real value. It occupies a similar space in modern historical studies as the attempts to typify the 'races' of humanity has in modern human biology.

In addition the near total ignorance of the history of the various peoples and empires that have dominated Persia demonstrated by the author "the ancient kingdom of Persia which stood for several ages exempt from revolution" is simply a statement of ignorant bias (I don't know about any revolutions, so they must not have happened). The same applies to his statements about China. As such the whole thesis is based upon faulty and incorrect premises.

The observation that power structures in India tended to be local and that regional overlords consistently failed to impose long lasting hegemonies is correct, and this does lead to some interesting questions about how and why various groups do and do not form large and long lasting hegemonies. However, the author's thesis, which appears to be that the Indian Hindus were at a lower level of civilisation, has no validity.

There is no doubt that the Indians were at a lower "tech level" than the British in pretty much every sphere by the nineteenth century.

I would say that the tendency of large empires to fragment had much to do with communications (or lack thereof). I would imagine that if the Indians had developed the telegraph then their various kingdoms would have held together better.

If anyone wants to bring up the Telegraph as not preventing the break-up of the British empire then think carefully about whether post-war British governments had any interest in maintaining the British empire.
 
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Henry IX

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While I agree that technology certainly helps to control large empires there were many large and long lasting empires in history that did not have modern technology like telegraphs, so it not sufficient to explain why empires do or do not form or last in a given region. There have been many empires in history that have lasted longer than the second British Empire in spite of lower levels of technology. I wish I had a good theory for why certain empires last and others do not, but I don't.
 
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Sarmatia1871

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I think that looking for a Grand Theory Of Empire Duration is generally a bad idea. This is always going to be down to a whole load of local and historically-specific factors - not to mention that the systems that get classed as "empires" have a great deal of variation between them, and pretty much every example changed considerably over its duration.
 
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Yakman

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I think that looking for a Grand Theory Of Empire Duration is generally a bad idea. This is always going to be down to a whole load of local and historically-specific factors -
or just a couple of bad weather events...
 

Gordy

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While I agree that technology certainly helps to control large empires there were many large and long lasting empires in history that did not have modern technology like telegraphs, so it not sufficient to explain why empires do or do not form or last in a given region. There have been many empires in history that have lasted longer than the second British Empire in spite of lower levels of technology. I wish I had a good theory for why certain empires last and others do not, but I don't.

I wasn't trying to explain why empires form or don't form. I was offering my opinion on why Indian empires had a tendency to fragment. And I already said that the British empire ended because the British gave up on the idea. The telegraph can't prevent an empire fragmenting if the imperialists have suddenly become socialists.
 

civfanatic

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Alternate explanation- India isn't the right scale to look at state formation any more than Hispania is to judge the success of Portugal or Spain.

Yes, I definitely agree with that. "India" as a whole is like Europe. The difference between Kashmir and Kerala on opposite sides of India is as great (if not greater) than the difference between Portugal and Poland. Expecting all of India to be united is like expecting all of Europe to be united.
 

civfanatic

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So do you have an idea of where we should draw the splits? Three (like how it is in Crusader Kings 2) or is there another historical way India is best cleaved upon>

The three-fold division used by CK2 is completely artificial and makes little sense. You can divide India based on ethno-linguistic boundaries, just like Europe. Even in medieval times, people divided India along these lines, even if these regions were not politically unified under a single state (just as people in Europe talked about "Italy" and "Germany" long before those unified nation-states came into-being in the 19th century). In total, there are about a dozen major ethno-linguistic groups in India, all of whom have their own states with their own official language and official script (they are essentially like nation-states within a state). Here is a map showing the major languages of India:

wc17_languageindiam.jpg



It should be noted that much of North India from Rajasthan to Bihar has been homogenized to a considerable degree as far as language goes, with Hindi being widely used throughout this vast region. However, in the past (by which I mean before the 20th century), North India also had its own distinctive regions and languages.
 

AvatarOfKhaine

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However, does not the existence of even a federal India show that India is unlike Europe?

Even if we ASB in a Europe entirely under the sway of Aztecs Mongols or some other foreign Empire, could there have been a Europe in the same way we have an India?

The failure of a united Indian empire prior to the Raj is I believe the result of none of the previous attempts having the length of time to hold dominion over the entirety of the continent. The Mughals or even the Marathas would have needed a stronger base to form the core of such a state and I believe they would have needed a degree of tolerance found in the early but not later Mughals to prevent an early split(s) along religious lines.

To put simply, the lack of an India before Britain did not mean a native Indian state was impossible, it was just that none of the earlier attempts had a great enough (wo)man or well timed enough conditions to form one.
 
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civfanatic

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However, does not the existence of even a federal India show that India is unlike Europe?

Even if we ASB in a Europe entirely under the sway of Aztecs Mongols or some other foreign Empire, could there have been a Europe in the same way we have an India?

Yes, I really believe that if some foreign power (like the Chinese) had conquered all of Europe and forged a pan-European centralized state in the 17th or 18th century, Europe would be largely standing even today as a single state, just like India. Before the rise of nationalism in the 19th and 20th centuries, Europeans did not care if they were part of the same state as other European Christians of different ethnic groups, or even if they were ruled by "foreigners." A king from Spain would have found no great difficulty ruling in Austria, a king from France would have found no great difficulty ruling in Hungary, and a king from England would have found no great difficulty ruling in Poland. Just as the experience of British rule brought Indian elites together in a common Indian "nationalism," the experience of foreign Chinese rule would have also brought European elites together in a common European "nationalism," because a person from Portugal and Denmark - no matter their differences - have far more in common with each other than with a Chinese or Mongol.