Also, out of curiosity:
Currently if the Duke of Aquitane inherits England or vice versa, it's likely that the duchy of aquitane will be granted to a new Duke. This would make the new file a vassal of England.
Under this proposal, who would the new Duke be vassal to? France? If so, then what on earth do you do to determine who should be the liege of newly conquered territories?
Asturias Holy Wars the Umayyads for Portucale. They give the duchy to someone else. If this guy now a vassal of the Umayyads because the title has historically been that? Is he independent because no one is king of Galicia? Or is he the vassal of the title granter? If it's the last one, why would the aforementioned new Duke of aquitane be vassal to France?
The difference is simple. If an English Duke inherits a French Duchy, that Duchy is still, legally-speaking, a vassal of the French crown. As such, it makes no sense for the English King to revoke it and re-grant it to someone else, any more than it would make sense for him to just unilaterally decree that his son was now the Duke of some Duchy in Germany that was under the control of some other ruler. No-one would recognise his authority to do so and, as such, the revocation or grant would have no practical effect, aside perhaps from giving the person in question a (rather dubious) claim on the title.
Conversely, if Asturias Holy Wars the Umayyads for Portucale and wins, then they own that Duchy by right of conquest, in the same way as William the Conqueror owned England by right of conquest. As such, the Duchy is seen as theirs by everyone relevant, and they are free to dispose of it as they wish.
The way I was thinking about it, the de jure empires, kingdoms and duchies would play no role in the process. It would simply be a question of how you obtained the land. If you obtained it by conquest, then it's yours, you can do whatever you like with it. If, on the other hand, you obtained it by inheritance, then whatever conditions were previously attached to the title continue to be attached to it. I.e., if the previous holder of the title was a vassal of someone other than your current liege, then you still owe fealty for that title to that person, unless you choose to explicitly declare independence (and fight for it). If you lost, then obviously the title could be revoked.
The game structures simply canät handle it, and it's the root of many of the problems the game suffers from.
Agreed, which is why it's an ideal situation, not one I expect to see implemented in CK2.
So what does pressing an inherited claim for aquitane do in this example?
It's been conquered, but for reasons related to inheritance. Does aquitane stay part of France, or is it part of England. And, as it was conquered, can the English King grant it, or is it still considered inherited and thus ungrantable?
If pressing claims leads to ungrantable land, then how on earth do you propose same religion people expand without going over the demesne limit? Especially if they are vassals
That is an interesting edge case, yes. In that case, I'd say that, for gameplay purposes, it would be part of England. You conquered the land by right of conquest, and the person who you were conquering it for agreed (implicitly) to pay homage to you for it.
If such a thing happened in reality, the King would almost certainly talk to the Duke beforehand and say "I'm pushing this on your behalf, provided you accept that it's now part of England", and the Duke would say "OK, sure". The whole "pushing your vassals' claims on another realm" thing is actually somewhat questionable historically (I can't really think of it happening to a united country, although it certainly did happen to an extent with the Welsh and Irish), but I think it's a gameplay abstraction that is necessary to handle issues with what people would and would not have considered a "justified" claim on land.
A problem that this raises - if you're not independent, you cannot grant (inherited) titles, since true ownership of the land belongs to your overlord. In a similar fashion, conquering within your own realm shouldn't give you the conquered titles, since there is little to no reason for the overlord to acknowledge your deposition of his loyal servant.
It depends on the relative strength of the overlord. France in the time period of the Hundred Years' War was in a position where the King had little real power. As a result, powerful Dukes could and did push to increase their own power. Of course, the overlord doesnt have to recognise it, and that is represented in-game by the ability to revoke Duchies.
The ability to sub-grant land was absolutely part of the feudal system, though. It was obviously not any more feasible for a Duke to control all of the land he was allocated than it was for a King to do so, so the Duke was expected to pass that land on to lower-level retainers. The King didn't particularly care what the Duke did, because the King already granted that Duke the land to do with as they wished, and giving away bits of it was a necessary part of that.
There is also no reason why conquering land outside your realm should give you the title, at least not one that is universally accepted - just because you've conquered Essex and claim to be Duke, there's no reason why England (or the legitimate Duke) should accept it, but yet in game you become Duke, the former Duke merely gets a claim - and worse still, everybody but the Duke seems to accept it.
Yes, which is why just occupying territory in a war doesn't give you the title to it. However, when you win a war with a defined CB, the peace treaty that is signed formally grants you control of that land. No-one can dispute the legality of that, even if they may well dispute the outcome by force later.
The whole fealty/homage thing just doesn't work in a computer game. I don't really think it's possible to make it work since it's entirely possible for someone to hold the (de jure) title to somewhere that has been lost in a war, provided that their home realm still accepts it. Just because the count of Rouen has been displaced by a Norse invader doesn't mean that France (and the rest of Christian Europe) doesn't still consider him to be the Count, just temporarily displaced. Similarly there are extant claims to titles that are long since lost by the claimant (The Queen of the UK still has "Duke of Normandy" in her full list (albeit only the Channel Islands count...), Spain has King of Jerusalem in the full list, and so on).
The existence of former holders of a title is represented by the "claim" system. If the former count of Rouen wants his land back, then he can push the claim in a war (or his liege can). And, generally, the sort of claims you're talking about with the UK and Spain are purely for show. The British Kings formally claimed the French throne all the way up until the French Revolution (at which point the claim became moot), but they made no genuine effort to enforce that claim after the Hundred Years' War, and no-one would have really accepted the claim had they tried.