8.000-12.000 years ago there was no iberian culture so the link for II Iron Age is inexistant.redmark said:One of the limitations of archaeology - every cultural shift is identified as a new distinct culture (arising almost from nowhere), usually "backed up" with theories of mass migration and wipeout.
Genetic analysis shows that approximately 75% of modern residents of the British Isles are descended from populations resident in the British Isles 8,000-12,000 years ago - the vast majority arriving from the Iberian Ice Age refuge (a much small number, rising slightly in eastern areas, came via the east from the Balkans refuge). Even in England, the figure is two-thirds; the population was neither "wiped out" or "pushed west" by the Romans, or the Anglo-Saxons. See "Origins of the British" by Oppenheimer.
More speculatively (using archaeology, linguistics and genetics), the book suggests that the English language was not brought by Anglo-Saxons, but was a much earlier Germanic branch, with some Norse influence. Also that the 'Saxons' - closely related to Belgic/Frisian tribes - were present in south eastern England before the Romans.
You should take a look at the archeological theories you´re refering to, since invasionism and culture substitution is completely outdated nowdays.
Archeologists use the term culture as a substitution of the more precise "material culture" and lots of them consist in local evolution and developement of past realities.
The one I know best is vaccean one and I can tell you for sure that it´s strongly linked to Soto de Medinilla culture (I Iron Age) and Cogotas culture (Last Bronze Age) so they didn´t "come from nowhere".