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unmerged(590)

First Lieutenant
Dec 26, 2000
249
0
Right, this one has probably been up to discussion before.

I was curious about the mechanics behind supply for troops in ships.

For starters, the 2000 men per transport seems a little high. The Spanish armada had roughly 60 transport ships, but - when being fully loaded - could not take more than 19.000 men.

(Makes for about 300 soldiers per ship - a lot more reasonable figure than 2000.)

But that's not really the point I'd like to make. One could easily argue, for instance, the ships in the game are only a symbol for a larger naval division.

How come that an army of 20.000 men is fully supplied on ships, but the minute they go ashore, they are subject to attrition as if they were out of supply?

Regardless of the vicinity of the fleet that dropped them off.

Is there any thought behind this, or did Paradox just inherit the BG system?

------------------
Dilbert: 'Can you teach me to be arrogant?'

Dogbert: 'Bah.'
 

hjarg

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A balancing issue? It would take enourmous amount of ships then just to get a small army to somewhere.
 

unmerged(590)

First Lieutenant
Dec 26, 2000
249
0
Yeah, probably. I just thought it strange.

We have a lot of history buffs here, but they seem more interested in creating a correct map rather than making the game system probable.

=)

------------------
Dilbert: 'Can you teach me to be arrogant?'

Dogbert: 'Bah.'