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TubercularOx

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I was reading the "Kingdom of Lotharingia Mod" thread and started a reply which spiralled into this monstrosity, and I thought it deserved its own thread.

jordik said:
In the context of Crusader Kings, this simply means that since we have a Burgundy, any Lotharingia must be the later Lotharingia, and not also include the Provence etc., which were a part of the earlier Lotharingia.

I'm very weak on Lotharingian history; I only came to learn/care about Lotharingia at all because Lorraine is the only EUII nation with both French and German culture, and that's an unsneezable amount of state-cultured manpower to have access to.

The only source I could find that went into any detail was http://www.friesian.com/lorraine.htm .

The author claims that "earlier lotharingia" was never called Lotharingia, but Francia Media, and "later Lotharingia" was named Lotharingia for Lothar II, who got it, not Lothar I. Is he full of it? I admit his writing style strikes me more as "My Arrogant Opinion" and not good historical scholarship.

Finellach said:
It looks good now, although I think you should remove Troyes....it goes too much into Frankish(French) teritory.

Segueing HUGELY here. the main reason why the official version people don't like Lotharingia is because it's too easy for Germany to create for free prestige. (Or so I understand.)

It occurs to me that if you think of Lothar I as playing Crusader Kings, and *not* living real life, then he's using gavelkind inheritance, and before he died, he Created the titles of Lotharingia, Burgundy, and Italy (this assumes the timeline presented by Friesan.com, which other people's comments gives me reason to doubt.) But under CK rules, to create a King of Lotharingia title to pass on to Lothar II, he only needs 66% of Lotharingian provinces under his belt.

So, imagine I'm writing a fantasy mod only partly based on history. I want a Lotharingian kingdom, but I don't want Germany to be able to create it gratis. In other words, I want to satisfy Byakhiam's gameplay requirements by ignoring the historical requirements. I would do this by making the 1066 German possessions less than 66% of All Lotharingia, but I would make the sum of all historic Lotharingian possesions over 66%.

If I take the latest version of the Kingdom of Lotharingia Mod that's actually downloadable as the best guess definition of historical Lotharingia, then there are 22 provinces held by Germany in 1066 (I'm not ambitious enough yet to look at the other scenarios), and 2 held by France: Vermandois and Troyes. (Yes, I know the *comments* say that Troyes was removed, but that's not what's downloadable). This means that the smallest theoretical "All Lotharingia" would have to be 34 provinces for all 24 historical provinces to give you 66% (70.6%), but for only the German 22 to give you less than 66% (64.7%).

At this point I could solicit requests for which 12 provinces that are held by the King of France in 1066 would be best added to an underlying uncreated Lotharingian crown.

Or, I could posit that Lothar I, in his extreme cleverness, managed to give Lothar II not only the title King of Lotharingia, but some extraneous German duchy as well... that is, if Lothar II inherited as titles both King of Lotharingia and Duke of Friesland, then a CK realm map of 855 would be indistinguishable from the historical Lotharingia, even though the underlying province base required for creating Lotharingia was actually very different (IE, did not include Friesland, did include significant West Frankish holdings). Depending on your source, excluding Friesland may even be plausible. And this means that a minimal Lotharingia that meets my requirements would only have to be 25 provinces, and I only need 9 french-held provinces, since subtracting the 6 (what happened to oldenburg?) Friesian provinces from the German territories leaves 16 German-held Lotharingian provinces, and 16/25 = .64 and King of Lotharingia is an uncreatable title at game start.

Vermandois is obviously one. Troyes will do as another. If I return Yperen and Brugge (Flanders certainly had no love of the French crown), I'd feel obligated to return Gent, but that's okay, because round off error mean I still only need 5 more provinces. But as long as I'm "returning" provinces, I'd like to return Kleves and Mainz so that LOLO is an entirely Lotharingian duchy, and then return Pfalz so that UPLO is entirely Lotharingian (whoops, I think I downloaded the wrong version), which would kick my French requirement up two. (20/29=67.8%, 20/30=2/3, 20/31=64.5%, 31-20=11-Vermandois, Troyes, Yperen, Brugge = 7. (Gent, Kleves, Mainz, Pfalz -- hardly seems worth dumping Friesland!)

So I still need 7 French Counties that were never a part of Lotharingia that I would paint Lotharingian. In an effort to be historically informed, though not historically correct, I'm asking for opinions. Which Counties held by the King of France in 1066 would seem most likely to have Lotharingian sympathies? That is, if suitably pissed at the King of France, which counties would choose to defect to a King of Lotharingia, if he had existed? I'm tempted to head south, and simply paint the French Bourgogne holdings as Lotharingian (leaving the Burgundy Bourgogne holdings as Burgundy, of course), but Forez, though part of the Kingdom of France, is German held in 1066, which screws up the math again. :(. Round off error saves me from needing another French province, (except to replace the one I *thought* Forez would be...) but now I've dumped Friesland's six German provinces only to pick up 5 more German provinces! Some deal!

So, stapling French Bourgogne onto Lotharingia gives me 5, 2 left... EUII seems to feel Artois is Dutch (French cultured, but like Luxembourg, included in *all* the Dutch events), and that friction could be enough to pull it away from France, so I could slap it on to Lotharingia as well. So, the Duchies of Artois, Flanders, Hainaut, Brabant, Luxembourg, Upper and Lower Lorraine, Champagne, and those parts of Bourgogne that are currently France instead of Burgundy would be Greater Lotharingia, and Friesland is ahistorically demoted to a vassal duchy that otherwise wasn't "natively" Lotharingian. It's my mod, maybe I'll vindictively reduce Friesland to NONE as its kingdom. 32 provinces is a little larger than Byakhiam's recommendation, but it isn't creatable in 1066, (21 german provinces / 32 total = 65.6%), and owning all of *historical* Lotharingia (add Vermandois) would allow you to create it (although Friesland is uncomfortably superfluous for that.) Mission accomplished, if somewhat sloppily. There are refinements.. I could make it 30 provinces by stripping transrhine LOLO, which Friesan.com suggests is appropriate, and makes the Rhine a neat eastern border. If I then call Troyes a part of "historical" Lotharingia, then arbitrarily return Forez to the Kingdom of France, it's 29 provinces, and Germany needs two French conquests to be able to Create it after 1066, and I can still claim that owning all of historical Lotharingia lets you create the Lotharingian crown.

I really can't seem to shut up. If anyone is with me on this and hasn't turned away in righteous history major wrath, let me know if you have any better ideas for a Greater Lotharingia that Germany is prevented from creating in 1066 because of missing a crucial province or two, preferably between 20 and 30 provinces total, that covers as much of historical Lotharingia as possible.
 

TubercularOx

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This is the svelte 29 province Lotharingia that I mentioned.



And this is a 38 province "fat" Lotharingia, including Friesland and Picardy (Picardy entirely because it rounds out the border nicely, no other rational explanation)

Since this is intended as the gameplay version (and not the historic version) of Lotharingia, what are the AI consequences for relabeling a province as Lotharingia (Or NONE)? Vassals inside are more likely to swear to the king of Lothar, yes, but anything else?
 

unmerged(21937)

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I like the smaller version better myself. However, I think the way how it stretches into Bourgogne seems oddish, so would it be possible to switch three southernmost BOUG provinces for the three Picardy provinces?

The lands given to Lotharingia will never pledge fealty to king of France or Germany if they break free of their liege, only to king of Lotharingia.
 

TubercularOx

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Byakhiam said:
The lands given to Lotharingia will never pledge fealty to king of France or Germany if they break free of their liege, only to king of Lotharingia.

Even if King of Lotharingia remains uncreated as a title?



Now it's 28 provinces (and still "works" as far as my requirements go), I dropped 4 Bourgogne provinces so that the French Kingdom kept a more natural border.
 
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TBox said:
Even if King of Lotharingia remains uncreated as a title?

Yes. In that case they don't pledge to anyone.

Or if they are counts, they can pledge to their natural duke liege, but not to any king.
 

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Byakhiam said:
Yes. In that case they don't pledge to anyone.

Or if they are counts, they can pledge to their natural duke liege, but not to any king.

In that case, I'm very happy with this Lotharingia. It includes all of the
major duchies and grand counties (which CK labels duchies) that www.euratlas.com felt fit to draw in a different color during the game's time period (I dunno if this means they were independent, vassals at odds with their liege, or simply too-powerful nobles), but it's easy to imagine them being "held apart" because there was no historical Crown of Lotharingia that their base provinces would allow them to swear to. Except Holland and Friesland, but those I'm tempted to just mark as NONE. 1066 is conveniently set up with Blois a demesne of the Duke of Champagne, so all of Blois et Champagne (that Euratlas paints as not-france in http://www.euratlas.com/time/nw1200.htm ) could be dragged from france by the Duke of Champagne declaring independence then refusing to reswear because the Duchy of Champagne is titled as Lotharingian, which is uncreated.



Swapping Auxerre for Reims. Reims is a bishopric in 1066 (cannot be married into and inherited, and generating casus belli seems more difficult, so not likely to seriously affect AI decisions), is a vassal of the Duke of Champagne in 1066 (CHAM being wholly Lotharingian already), gets Lotharingia entirely out of BOUG, and makes the borders very pleasing to my eye.

LOLO is split between Lotharingia and Germany. Does this mean an independent LOLO could swear to either, or does it depend on where LOLO's capital province exists? Reims is titled as part of DFRA. Could this lead to an independent DFRA (that had managed to wrest Reims from its current liege the Duke of Champagne) swearing allegiance to Lotharingia, when it *should*, by all means necessary, swear to france? Same question, different issues.
 
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Veldmaarschalk

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The colours on the Euroatlas of 900 mean

Lotharingia was a dependent state of the Kingdom of Germany

Flanders was fully part of France

Holland and Frisia are unknown/uncertain regions.

So if I understand you correctly you want to have Holland and Frisia not part of any standard kingdom ?

Is it for gameplay reasons ? Since they were since early 11th century part of the kingdom of Germany/HRE and stayed part of it officially until 1648. So historical it would be incorrect to have them as 'none'.
 

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Veldmaarschalk said:
The colours on the Euroatlas of 900 mean

Lotharingia was a dependent state of the Kingdom of Germany

Flanders was fully part of France

Holland and Frisia are unknown/uncertain regions.

So if I understand you correctly you want to have Holland and Frisia not part of any standard kingdom ?

Is it for gameplay reasons ? Since they were since early 11th century part of the kingdom of Germany/HRE and stayed part of it officially until 1648. So historical it would be incorrect to have them as 'none'.

Good to know! What about the colors for 1100, 1200, and 1300? Spec. the status of Flanders, Brabant, Luxembourg, Blois et Champagne, and Lorraine itself?

The only gameplay reasons was because euratlas.com gave me the impression that they were difficult nobles to work with -- not entirely happy with whatever crowns they were part of. Marking them Lothar or NONE encourages them to be snippety, if only very slightly... in that if France and Germany don't suck up to them and keep them loyal, then if they *do* declare independence, there is a war in the offing -- you can't wait for them to reswear. IOW, it would only matter if they're illtreated... they won't easily come "back to the fold" as they do now. If Germany and France treat their nobles well and keep them loyal, then Lotharingia will remain invisible throughout the entire campaign.

Even though historically Holland (and Friesland) stayed part of Germany throughout the period (Germany kept them at 100% loyal if History were CK), do you think if they had found cause to revolt, they would have any motivation to reswear fealty in the next generation, or would they have simply started an independent Holland a few centuries early? *Did* they find cause to revolt and then reswore, somewhere in the period, that I am unaware of? We're starting to touch on culture issues, and I *don't* want to muck with that, but I have to ask.
 

Veldmaarschalk

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Well the euroatlas doesn't show the HRE. If lands have a different colour it means they are considered independent on these maps.

Well in the real history when a vassal rebelled he stayed part of the kingdom not like in CK where he becomes independent and can swear loyalty to another king.

The people back then in what is the low countries didn't know better then that they were part of the HRE. They wouldn't dream of creating an independent kingdom.
 

TubercularOx

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Cirdan said:
In both cases AFAIK it depends on where the capital is located, so in both cases it could go either way. DFRA would i think pledge to Lotharingia if Rheims was it capital.

Harder question: What about that Bishopric of Rheims? If it breaks vassalage to the Duke of Champagne, then its natural choices are to swear fealty to the Duke of Francia (who, if and when he exists, is likely also the King of France), or directly to any existing King of Lotharingia.

Assuming the Duke of Francia *is* the King of France, is the tendency to avoid a non-lotharingian king stronger than the tendency to swear to your natural ducal liege? (Similar questions apply to Kleves, substituting the Duke of Lower Lorraine and the King of Germany for Francia and Lotharingia respectively)

If France has undergone some serious issues, and the Duke of Francia is not the King of France (but vassal to the King of France), will Reims swear to the Duke of Francia or the King of Lotharingia? Or is it random between the two?
 

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Veldmaarschalk said:
Well the euroatlas doesn't show the HRE. If lands have a different colour it means they are considered independent on these maps.

Well in the real history when a vassal rebelled he stayed part of the kingdom not like in CK where he becomes independent and can swear loyalty to another king.

The people back then in what is the low countries didn't know better then that they were part of the HRE. They wouldn't dream of creating an independent kingdom.

Well, that tempts me to leave Friesland as part of GERM, but I'm going to have to ignore history and leave an uncreated Lotharingian crown as a possible excuse for Flemish independence... otherwise I don't have a mod!
 
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TBox said:
Harder question: What about that Bishopric of Rheims? If it breaks vassalage to the Duke of Champagne, then its natural choices are to swear fealty to the Duke of Francia (who, if and when he exists, is likely also the King of France), or directly to any existing King of Lotharingia.

Assuming the Duke of Francia *is* the King of France, is the tendency to avoid a non-lotharingian king stronger than the tendency to swear to your natural ducal liege? (Similar questions apply to Kleves, substituting the Duke of Lower Lorraine and the King of Germany for Francia and Lotharingia respectively)

If France has undergone some serious issues, and the Duke of Francia is not the King of France (but vassal to the King of France), will Reims swear to the Duke of Francia or the King of Lotharingia? Or is it random between the two?
I'm fairly certain the title-holder's prestige comes into play...IIRC, I've seen counties pledge to me because i held the right king-title, even though their duke was in existence (and also swore to me). But i may be mistaken...
 

Veldmaarschalk

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TBox said:
Well, that tempts me to leave Friesland as part of GERM, but I'm going to have to ignore history and leave an uncreated Lotharingian crown as a possible excuse for Flemish independence... otherwise I don't have a mod!

Well I understand that for gameplay reasons, historical sacrifices have to be made.
 

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Veldmaarschalk said:
Well I understand that for gameplay reasons, historical sacrifices have to be made.

That depends on how you interpret the Kingdom tags. The Kingdom of France is the Realm that owes its fealty to the King of France, which does not have to match the borders of FRAN at all. This is exactly how I can justify to myself a U019 (Lotharingia) that is in no way historical Lotharingia -- The Kingdom of Lotharingia never expanded to fill its basic borders. I don't know what definition to give to the FRAN tag -- possibly "the lands that think of themselves as basically French."

So, Flanders. Byakhiam says in a similar thread (The benelux thread) that Flanders is difficult because it was part of the HRE but mostly vassals of France. There are in fact two ways to represent that: Make Flanders a part of GERM, but start them as vassals of France (And hope the King of France keeps them loyal enough to stay French), or make Flanders a part of FRAN and make them vassals of GERM (and hope that they eventually revolt and swear allegiance to FRAN.) Flanders always thought of itself as basically Flemish, not French (or any subset of French), so I would have chosen the first option. The game designers chose to make Flanders both a part of FRAN and vassals of the King of France.

You feel it is ahistoric for Flanders to be anything but a part of FRAN, because you feel FRAN represents the Kingdom of France, but I feel it represents fundamentally French provinces. I feel it is ahistoric for Flanders to be anything but a part of GERM: they fundamentally believed themselves to be a part of the HRE. Their relationship with France had nothing to do with whether they were French or German, and everything to do with their vassalage to the King of France.

So while we agree that flagging them U019 is ahistoric, we disagree as to what the real historic case would be. I feel they are a German province that owed allegiance to France throughout the period in question, you feel their allegiance to France throughout the period in question defines them as a French province.

Furthermore, I want to flag them U019 ahistorically because I feel the idea of a Lotharingian crown was present throughout the period in question, and that the lack of that idea is a disservice to history. I feel I am sacrificing historicity in one area for historicity in another because of restrictions on gameplay mechanics (like not having enough culture tags to go around and having to merge cultures to make room), and not sacrificing history for gameplay at all. In fact, I feel gameplay is slightly worsened by flagging Flanders as anything but FRAN. I feel flagging Flanders as FRAN is the gameplay option, because it encourages the Flanders AI to behave historically, even though historically, Flanders tended to think of itself as a German (well, HRE) province and, as a static description of which provinces tend to think of themselves as "French" or "German," Flanders should prolly be flagged GERM.

But these are only what is good for Flanders. Historically, they are German. For gameplay, they are French. But my opinion is that the idea of a Lotharingian crown fresh in the mind of the AI is more valuable for historic *and* gameplay reasons across the whole Franco-German border than either historicity or gameplay for Flanders alone. Flanders loses, the German border wins.
 

Veldmaarschalk

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The county of Flanders wasn't part of the HRE only a small part of the lands ruled by the counts of Flanders was part of the HRE (east of the Scheldtriver).

This was known is Rijks-Vlaanderen (or Imperial Flanders) the main and important part was a vassal of France, this was called Kroon-Vlaanderen (Royal Flanders).

So Flanders is made part of France not for gameplay reasons but because the counts of Flanders were vassals of the King of France until 1526.
 

TubercularOx

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Veldmaarschalk said:
So Flanders is made part of France not for gameplay reasons

That's an entirely ambiguous statement, which is my point. And I'm guilty of being ambiguous too.

Do you mean Flanders is flagged as FRAN in province.csv, or do you mean that in all scenarios, the Duke of Flanders traces his vassalization to the King of France? It's two different things. And I would agree that the Duke of Flanders is a vassal of the King of France because historically he was a vassal of the King of France, but I would disagree that the provinces that are flagged as FLAN are also flagged as FRAN for purely historic reasons. The very notion that there is a FRAN (or a FLAN) independent of the holdings of the King of France (or the Duke -- okay, Count -- of Flanders) is a pretty ahistoric and entirely gameplay-driven notion. I suspect it was done because it gave a framework for encouraging the AI to behave historically, but the historicality of the framework itself is entirely theoretical.

Only two posts ago, I believed that being FRAN flagged should mean that a province has a historical tradition of thinking itself as specifically French. Based on this logic I proposed that, if FLAN were to be flagged "historically," it should be flagged GERM, since I misunderstood Byakhiam to have asserted that it thought of itself as HRE despite its French vassalization. I will humbly withdraw that notion, because now I realize that there is nothing intrinsically historic about the Kingdom tag assignments at all. They can creat extrinsic historic effects, in that they nudge the AI into certain behaviors, but are not intrinsically historical.

It is not historic to list Flanders as FRAN. In fact, it is not historic to list Ile de France as FRAN! Well, no, that's a little hyperbole. Let me explain. What is historic is the way this listing encourages Dukes and Counts in the game to behave. Owning Ile de France (and a whole bunch of other FRAN provinces) would give a Duke of Francia strong motivation to Create a King of France (if it didn't already exist) -- that's historical. The Duke of Francia having strong motivation to swear fealty to any existing King of France, that's historical. A King of France moving his capital to Ile de France because it is his richest demesne county? Quite historical. On all accounts, assigning Ile de France to FRAN encourages historical behavior.

But look at Flanders. Encouraging the Duke of Flanders to swear fealty to the King of France, quite historical. The Duke of Flanders dying off heirless and leaving his demesne to the King of France? Historically plausible, if not historic, but nothing to do with the FRAN tag. The King of France then granting his son the Duchy of Francia, thus causing his capital to move to Flanders because Flanders is richer than Orleans, his only other FRAN demesne? Not only ahistorical, but not really historically plausible either. Marking Flanders as FRAN is clearly a compromise decision. It is only in this sense, that the behavior induced by the FRAN tag is more or less historical, that the FRAN tag can be considered historically appropriate or inappropriate.

The reason why I am berating this point is that I am unusually irked that you appear to be trying to convince me that Flanders is universally and without question appropriately assigned to FRAN, near as I can determine based solely on the premise that the French held it throughout the game period, when I have deep reservations about the appropriateness of FLAN to FRAN. I feel insulted (perhaps an unfair emotion on my part) that you think these questions I have about FRAN's appropriatenes to FLAN are somehow not historically motivated. You (likely unknowingly) attack my scholarly credentials, and I apologize for being extremely sensitive on that spot, even when my ignorance of the history in question is quite abundant.

EDIT: Good lord, a wonderfully executed rant and rave, and he deletes my justification? Shame. The anger he induced in me has generated quite a lot of insight on how to look at the game's internal workings.
 

TubercularOx

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Which reminds me, are there any other AI effects of cross-flagged provinces?

1. Won't reswear fealty iff declares independence.

2. Permits the creation of a title.

3. Territories flagged as "naturally" part of your Main Title are "first in line" to be your capital. (Verify this? This was my understanding of the "Prussia" thread in this forum.)

Any loyalty effects? Loyalty drops if a duke holding a GERM flagged title vassalizes a FRAN flagged county, for example?
 

Veldmaarschalk

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Well I would have been glad to help you.

But when you immediately consider my personal opinion on the matter as a personal insult to you then I really don't see a point in helping you.