This is part history, part EU-relevant posting.
Basically, I was thinking about how the economic model in EU could be altered to better resemble actual European economic history. It wasn't that hard until I started to think past the 16th century. I'd be interested in hearing ideas and inputs. Here are my current thoughts.
16th Century: Basically this time period is one featuring:
1. Population growth as part on the continuing recovery from the demographic crisis of the Black Death.
2. Growing pan-European and international trade, and
3. Inflation
At this point pretty much the whole world is on a commodity money standard and thus price levels are essentially determined by the crude quantity theory. Thus the influx of gold from the Americans results in significant inflation in Spain, which is transmitted to the rest of the world by the trade-specie flow and the Spanish habit and throwing gold around to recruit troops and mecenaries all over Europe and bribe foreign leaders (think Charles Quint's HRE election). Drain of specie to the East in this period was insufficient to significantly reduce inflation.
As I see it this could be modelled in the EU context along the following lines:
1. Technology is determined exogenously (i.e. based on historical schedules) and nations must spend to convert existing forces. There is no monthly income flow.
2. Yearly taxes are a function of current national income and adjustable tax rates. Increasing tax rates have negative impacts on stability, manpower availability, revolt risk and war exhaustion.
3. National income increases mainly as a result of population growth
4. Monarchs military ratings now give bonuses to the cost of converting obsolete forces.
5. Monarchs admin ratings now affect the level of population growth.
6. Inflation works as follows: spending domestic tax income does not increase inflation since it merely redistributes the existing money supply. Output of gold mines goes into a special "gold account" which may be horded and spent. Spending from the gold account results in an inflationary effect taking effect in 1 or 2 months time. "Neighbor effects" as used in current EU simulate the spread of inflation to other nations. Inflation effects of monetary expansion could be done tracking an actual money supply figure.
7. The size of possible domestic loans should be restricted for this period; internal borrowing was not easily done on a significant scale. Domestic loans should not have an inflationary effect as there is no change in the money supply.
8. Foreign loans increase domestic money supply and thus inflation. However, repayment of interest and principal will have a deflationary effect.
9. At a certain infrastructure level, a country should get access to a "mint monopoly" The country can use this to double his or her current treasury one per year, with an inflation consequence similar to gold inflow. Debasement events however lower stability and increase revolt risk to a degree equivalent to the amount of money debased. Conversely, the mint can revalue by spending a certain amount of money to directly reduce inflation. This sh/give a stability bonus.
10. I would also increase military maintenance costs for mobilized forces, even inside the home country.
The one factor this system would not model is the effect of differential inflation rates on trade. Historically, high relative price levels in Spain made its domestic manufacuring expensive and hence un-competitive on world markets, leading to the stagnation of Spanish trade. This could perhaps be modeled by "kludge" solutions such as appropriately setting EUII-style domestic policy sliders for Spain and perhaps by lowering slightly the admin ratings of Spanish monarchs.
Unfortunately, while this system models the 16th century European economy well it breaks down around 1620s. I will get into this in the following post to avoid mega-sized postings.
Basically, I was thinking about how the economic model in EU could be altered to better resemble actual European economic history. It wasn't that hard until I started to think past the 16th century. I'd be interested in hearing ideas and inputs. Here are my current thoughts.
16th Century: Basically this time period is one featuring:
1. Population growth as part on the continuing recovery from the demographic crisis of the Black Death.
2. Growing pan-European and international trade, and
3. Inflation
At this point pretty much the whole world is on a commodity money standard and thus price levels are essentially determined by the crude quantity theory. Thus the influx of gold from the Americans results in significant inflation in Spain, which is transmitted to the rest of the world by the trade-specie flow and the Spanish habit and throwing gold around to recruit troops and mecenaries all over Europe and bribe foreign leaders (think Charles Quint's HRE election). Drain of specie to the East in this period was insufficient to significantly reduce inflation.
As I see it this could be modelled in the EU context along the following lines:
1. Technology is determined exogenously (i.e. based on historical schedules) and nations must spend to convert existing forces. There is no monthly income flow.
2. Yearly taxes are a function of current national income and adjustable tax rates. Increasing tax rates have negative impacts on stability, manpower availability, revolt risk and war exhaustion.
3. National income increases mainly as a result of population growth
4. Monarchs military ratings now give bonuses to the cost of converting obsolete forces.
5. Monarchs admin ratings now affect the level of population growth.
6. Inflation works as follows: spending domestic tax income does not increase inflation since it merely redistributes the existing money supply. Output of gold mines goes into a special "gold account" which may be horded and spent. Spending from the gold account results in an inflationary effect taking effect in 1 or 2 months time. "Neighbor effects" as used in current EU simulate the spread of inflation to other nations. Inflation effects of monetary expansion could be done tracking an actual money supply figure.
7. The size of possible domestic loans should be restricted for this period; internal borrowing was not easily done on a significant scale. Domestic loans should not have an inflationary effect as there is no change in the money supply.
8. Foreign loans increase domestic money supply and thus inflation. However, repayment of interest and principal will have a deflationary effect.
9. At a certain infrastructure level, a country should get access to a "mint monopoly" The country can use this to double his or her current treasury one per year, with an inflation consequence similar to gold inflow. Debasement events however lower stability and increase revolt risk to a degree equivalent to the amount of money debased. Conversely, the mint can revalue by spending a certain amount of money to directly reduce inflation. This sh/give a stability bonus.
10. I would also increase military maintenance costs for mobilized forces, even inside the home country.
The one factor this system would not model is the effect of differential inflation rates on trade. Historically, high relative price levels in Spain made its domestic manufacuring expensive and hence un-competitive on world markets, leading to the stagnation of Spanish trade. This could perhaps be modeled by "kludge" solutions such as appropriately setting EUII-style domestic policy sliders for Spain and perhaps by lowering slightly the admin ratings of Spanish monarchs.
Unfortunately, while this system models the 16th century European economy well it breaks down around 1620s. I will get into this in the following post to avoid mega-sized postings.