Europa Universalis IV Nations - Native Americans: Aztecs (with Quil18!)

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Evie HJ

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the Japanes did not had the guns unless they traded with the Europeans

Well. They didn't DISCOVER guns until trading with Europeans, but once they did, they rapidly became able to produce guns comparable to if not better than the European ones - and they rapidly developped effective gun tactics that mirrored Europe's own.
 

unmerged(584823)

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Well. They didn't DISCOVER guns until trading with Europeans, but once they did, they rapidly became able to produce guns comparable to if not better than the European ones - and they rapidly developped effective gun tactics that mirrored Europe's own.

What do you mean by better quality and tactics ? Could I have a bit more information, I'd be very interested to know that.
 

Bard of Reveran

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True, but still they resorted to the French and the Americans in the late 19th century for military reforms. If it hadn't been for those Meiji reforms, I don't think the Japanese would have the courage to challenge Russia and America.
 

Dafool

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What do you mean by better quality and tactics ? Could I have a bit more information, I'd be very interested to know that.

After receiving Arquebuses from the Portuguese, the Japanese studied them and set up factories to begin domestic production. For about half a century they were one of the world's leading producers of firearms. Consequently, firearms briefly took a very prominent place in Japanese warfare. During that time they developed tactics like volley fire, which was simultaneous gaining prominence in Europe. The Japanese would spread firearms to Korea during their invasions and eventually to the Manchu as well. However, in the Edo period gun production slowed and guns were phased out, mostly because Japan turned to an isolationist policy and was no longer engaged in constant warfare. The "sword hunts" we often hear about also included searches for firearms, which were considered dangerous because they required little effective training. After that the usage of firearms largely stagnates in Japan until the 19th century.
 

Heatth

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Well. They didn't DISCOVER guns until trading with Europeans, but once they did, they rapidly became able to produce guns comparable to if not better than the European ones - and they rapidly developped effective gun tactics that mirrored Europe's own.

Yes, naturally. What I meant is that, once there is some event introducing the new weaponry, they should be able to build advanced units. So, for Japan, they should have their own cultural troops that, before gunpowder, was on par with the Europeans, but after, were inferior. However, eventually they should be able to trade guns with Europeans, and then they change their troops to be as strong as Europeans of equivalent tech level.
 

Evie HJ

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Except that their slowness at teching up is ALREADY represented by lower tech rate.

In-game, Europeans will have better gunpowder troops than Japan simply because they will reach that tech level faster than Japan.
 

Heatth

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Except that their slowness at teching up is ALREADY represented by lower tech rate.

In-game, Europeans will have better gunpowder troops than Japan simply because they will reach that tech level faster than Japan.

But then, how will the trade be represented? Japan got guns directly because Europeans traded with them. Some event to lower military tech cost?
 

TheFluff

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Just want to remind everyone that this game is called *Europa* Universalis. The focus of the game is on Europe.

Paradox obviously hasn't put much time into the American nations. They are pretty bland. But that doesn't mean that they have some Euro-centric chauvinist conspiracy scheme to marginalize the accomplishments of non-European cultures.
 

Jomini

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This is a circular argument. You're saying that their agricultural productivity before contact must have been less advanced than Europe because it collapsed following contact with Europe, which you admit has little to do with their actual technology but more so with the demographic disaster caused disease and warfare. Europe faced many of the same problems well into the modern era. The fact of the matter is that several areas of the New World maintained populations that equaled Europe in density. If their agricultural productivity was so incomparable to that of Europe, then we have to ask why the difference wasn't significantly more apparent? Yes, they may have lacked draft animals and iron, but they managed quite well all the same. This might be a good reason to put them behind a few levels, but it's not a particularly good argument for making their technological progress stagnant.

Well for starters, central Mexico doesn't lose 3 months of growth a year to snow and the Aztec were able to get two crops per year out that is a pretty big non-technological advantage. For another, Tenochtilan's density is also product of not being connected to the major epidemic belt running from Lisbon to Pusan without one of the major density dependent killing forces does allow you to maintain urban growth for a long time when other cities depopulate thanks to a 30% mortality rate with the black death.

Another shot is just like I said, they had a compulsory labor society and used a lot of inefficient manual labor. Building and maintaining chinampa, for instance provide an astonishing return on land inputs. However in terms of labor inputs there are woefully inefficient, and hence why pre-contact civilizations only used them during periods of high population. You get a much higher economic return from having fewer people working fewer crops, but having more man-hours put into extracting trade goods (e.g. mining, cash crop cultivation, timbering).

Most of the agricultural trade goods in EU are also not conducive to Mesoamerican agriculture. Sugar, Tobacco, and arguably Cotton and Tobacco work better for trade on a monoculture plantation style system worked with iron implements. Even grain exports tend to favor Europe as corn has more limited utility for bulk transport than wheat.

Outside of farming, you run into the problem that bronze and stone just have inherent mechanical inefficiencies compared to iron and steel. Be it mining gold or lumbering timber, iron retains its edge longer and takes less work to maintain.

So let's suppose pre-contact Mesoamericans want to maximize their surplus of non-subsistence goods. Going for iron implements means they need the iron working techs which are thousands of years. Going for draft animals is impossible. These aren't something you can just "tech" to in 50 years. These are practical limitations from geography. We can note that virtually every society in Mexico adopted iron tools and horses as soon as possible, even states which retained their autonomy and cooperated heavily with the Spanish.

First off, I'm curious about your numbers. They sound slightly too specific for you just to have made them up, but they're clearly vague and incorrect. What does "Aztecs" mean in this situation? Tenochtitlan? Mexico Valley? The Triple Alliance? Mesoamerica? Does your source even tell you? There's a fairly big difference between producing paper for 200k people and producing paper for 20 million. Now, if I was to guess, you're getting this number from Wikipedia, because that's only such place I can find this reference. However, I hope that you had the good sense to check that source. That 500 sheets, actually 480, is what the Aztecs received as tribute from a handful of villages in a particular year. Nowhere there does it state that this was the Aztecs' annual paper production or consumption. If you expand your list of sources, you'll see how wrong you are. It's quite easy to find references to about half a million sheets of paper being sent to Tenochtitlan each year. You're only off by a factor of about 1000. As for quipu, I simply disagree. Not only is the production of quipu significantly easier than that of paper, but it's incredibly efficient for maintaining numeric data. Overall I find your critique here to be poorly sourced and argued.

Sorry, I had to laugh at this one. You are asking for sources when you have given zero. In any event, I just did a quick Google scholar search, that gave me:

Neumann, Frank J. 1973. Paper: A sacred material in Aztec Ritual. History of Religions 13, 2: 149:159.

I quote verbatum:
"But these uses [most non-religious uses of paper] would have required only a small percentage of the total annual consumption of 480,000 pages."

Now perhaps Neumann is in error or my quick skimming and taking the figure at face value is in error. You are, of course, free to provide superior sources, but generally 480,000 pages in an awfully large number itself for Tenochtilan (hence my comparison to London) or even the entire Triple Alliance given that you had relatively limited literacy and a compulsory labor economy (meaning little banking, credit, and the like). However, early printing presses could go through 3k pages a day, and law courts were not that far behind. We aren't quibbling about a factor of 10 here, we are talking about the Aztecs needing truly stupendous amounts of paper to say run a law court that is an improvement over the basic courts in existence in most European provinces in 1448.

As far as Quipu, you do realize that less than 10% of the information stored in that era was numeric, right? You also realize that once the Inca start dealing with similar states, their ability to deal with low information count because Sapa Inca owns everything (or just the state) is going to collapse quickly.


That Aztecs did indeed have a different numeric representation for fractions, although the general Mesoamerican numeral system did not. An oddity to be sure. However, there is really only one major source on this issue and if I recall correctly that source notes that the discrepancies caused by the Aztecs' odd system of fractions was fairly minimal. Additionally, exponentiation was well known to Mesoamericans and we don't know exactly how they understood negative numbers. A parabola was probably within their grasp but not something they would have developed on their own without a purpose for it. Citing artillery is useless because they didn't have any and shipbuilding in the Americas was quite different from European shipbuilding and thus a parabolic framework would serve them no purpose.
Sigh, I never said they didn't have fractions, I said they don't have reciprocals. Yes the Aztecs had fractional symbols according to recent research. These are quite useful. But you are limited to the number of new symbols you use (which from what I recall of the Science article was 5 or so symbols). If you use reciprocals you can get much more accurate figures. E.g. say the Aztecs used novel symbols for 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5 and 1/6 this means that representing say 2/7ths means that they can at best approximate it as 1/4 with simple representation (an error of 13%). If you have reciprocals, you can use any fractional quantity to precision. Linear combinations of reciprocals (a method used by the Babylonians) allowed for extremely quick and fairly quick computation of every ugly fractions (like say 29/113). With the limited notation system the Aztec used right up until conquest, they aren't going to be able to achieve financial precision as great as Europe/Asia's and they aren't going to be able to calculate things like cantilever forces anywhere near as closely.

The Aztecs not having artillery - no catapults, trebuchet, or ballista there. Why? In part because they lacked the tools needed to easily make them (bronze takes poorly to repetitive wood working) and partly because they had little need of them. Of course, artillery is going to completely hose Aztec fortifications and the shock component (let alone some grape grounds) are going to obliterate Aztec battle formations.

As far as boats, well they are using dugout canoes and lack the tools to do better as well.

Parabolas are inherently useful. They, after all, describe formulas for area in relation to one unknown. From the math problems shown about 5 years ago in science they sure appeared to be using a lot of approximation to compute areas that are relatively simple with simple parabolic functions.


I'm going to have fun with this one. This is terrible cherrypicking. First, The Chichimeca were given these concessions in order secure peace after a long and bloody war that exhausted the Spanish. Second, these concessions were given under the supervision of the Spanish clergy and the Spanish brought in friendly Native allies to secure much of the colonization. Third, the Chichimecas themselves were nomadic. The weren't being seduced by Spanish agriculture, but by agricultural life in general. Fourth, the "goods" that were shipped, such as weapons and horses, were valuable only in the sense that they were previously illegal for Natives to own. Basically, this is a severe exception that quite readily proves the rule. The Spanish denied the Natives most Spanish technology, many refused to take on the Spanish lifestyle, and it was only in moments of great stress that this policy was broken.

Awful lot of talk with no sources there. We now most natives adopted the Horse whenever they could. Swords, like all iron implements, are more useful than obsidian for most tasks because they provide more reliable cutting power. We have no record (at least of which I am aware) of the use of atlatl after about 1600 as, shockingly most natives had adopted European weapons (every surviving atlatl I could find was one preserved as a Spanish curio).

Look, I'm not saying Europe just rampaged through, but seriously the natives weren't idiots. Iron stays sharp longer and they bought, stole, or borrowed iron tools whenever they could. Likewise, using draft animals (oxen, horses, donkeys, etc.) was done when possible as well. I mean even moving silver and gold down the Camino Real is unbelievably easier with draft animals. Pleas enlighten me, which Mesoamerican polity turned down steel? Iron? Horses? Cows?

You make a very odd case: Spanish technology is not significantly more advanced than native but Spanish technology is so much more advanced that they banned transfer and in some instances specifically transferred it to semi-nomadic populations.




I see no proof here.

A very accurate summation of your entire case.

There are numerous works on the Spanish legal system in Mexico. One can find plenty of anecdotes where Spanish administrators are confronted with awkward legal situations as they are forced to function within the Native legal system. The Spanish kept most of the local administrative and upper classes intact. Additionally, they tended to observe local traditions and laws unless they worked against the Spanish or the process of religious conversion. Most of your examples fall into the latter. On top of that, many parts of Mexico and the Yucatan maintained a good deal of sovereignty well into the 16th century.
Yes and those prove what exactly? By definition such anecdotes are oddities and not representative. Pretty much once the fighting stopped (which I grant took a long time) we see the Spanish legal code move in (excepting in subordinate allied states) and European style things come about.

Of course, lest we forget. Most of the province improvements in EU were not built by the Spanish either. New Spain was an extractive economy and most of the high tech European improvements didn't get built there until fairly late in the time period.


A specific claim could also be an exception and not reflective of the total picture. As I've already shown, both your specific and broader assumptions are questionable if not false. Saying "They didn't have paper and this makes their government less capable" is both a specific and broad claim. They did have paper. You are clearly incorrect there. When you could no longer back that up, you tried to state that they had only a little paper, but that too was false. Are you going to tell me next that they're paper didn't have the appropriate texture? Additionally, you failed to provide any factual proof that this would affect their government. Your claims about paper's affect on their administrative abilities was built solely on the assumption that they didn't have it. Now that you're aware that this wasn't true, does that make them as capable as Europeans?
As you have not posted a single source, I cannot give your claims merit given that they contradict published peer reviewed articles. Lacking sufficient paper, yes the Aztecs will be less efficient. Lacking broad based literacy and a common linga franca in Latin (e.g. at least everyone Catholic can write to each other), that will significantly impair the function of long range haulage, banking, and tax collection (particularly once you move past compulsory labor and in kind taxation).



Frankly Jomini, there are two type of responses that really throw these threads off course: The "You guys are just a bunch of revisionists" response and the "They didn't have X so they should have bad tech" response. The former is just uneducated and the latter is often predicated on generalities that usually don't support the conclusion. Should Natives have horses? No, logically they shouldn't. Should Natives have the same technology as Europeans? No, their technology was not generally as advanced. These sorts of things aren't what's being argued. The real question is whether they should be completely stagnant and helpless. Given that technology is portrayed as linear and not compounding, it would make little sense to make them both behind and incapable of advancement. Should they have penalties? Maybe, but I think it's an incredibly ignorant exaggeration to make their tech rate "New World: Enjoy tech level 0 until you westernize."


How many years, in general, do you believe the native nations should be behind in technology?

Okay now take that number. Divide it by say 20. That should give us a fairly rough idea of how many tech levels behind the Mesoamericans should start.


Most historians date the rise of Mesoamerican civilization to around 200 BCE while an at least comparable western civilization arose by 2000 BCE (arguably both came earlier but whatever definition shouldn't change the relative value and I'm being REALLY generous here). EU (largely) abstracts technology to a linear progression based on average monarch strength as I understand the model. This suggests that extrapolating from some starting tech at the dawn of civilization means that Europe should be around 90 tech levels ahead (along with the rest of North Africa, Asia, India, etc.). I'll need some serious analysis of why the Mesoamericans should be able to adopt technologies that everywhere else took thousands of years in just decades.



Saying that the Aztec (or anyone else) getting to tech levels around where Europe is extrapolated to be in 1400 (e.g. tech lvl 2) by 1500 is pretty dang generous. Now I would love for there to be options for the native civilizations that represent their real potentials - they should, say be able to spend monarch points to explore and colonize (no ocean going boats) one province at a time. This would be in keeping with the semi-nomadic nature of the northern Mesoamerican "states" as well as allowing for more settled states, like the Aztecs, to spend their pre-contact time expanding outward. Likewise, being able to use some special mechanic to represent the irregular warfare that really slowed Spanish conquest rather than pitched battles, that would also be good. I'm even okay with spotting the Mesoamericans huge amounts of tech because it is boring as heck to play forever at tech zero.

But let's be honest, the Mesoamericans weren't supermen and without contact, wouldn't have made significant progress on long distance haulage (no draft animals), artillery (math, wood working tools, metallurgy), naval transport (wood working tools, math), bulk mining, . If anything these very key areas in EU would be ignored because they have no viability for the Mesoamericans precontact. Paradox is being ahistorical - by giving the Mesoamericans a fighting chance at hitting the 15th century before the Europeans arrive.

More important than making the Mesoamericans fun, is to make sure that most of the time they end up like in history - becoming an extractive economy for some European AI. That shouldn't be too hard, but I also don't want Spain to have to import half its army to take the place. My preferred method is to say, yeah you will have tech zero forever until contact ... but here are bright shiny ways to spend monarch points until then. Some that are actually useful at say increasing your fortifications or subjugating your neighbors or colonizing outwards (with having AI limitations to keep the gold flowing to Europe) or perhaps building some sort of religious unity (like Patriarchal authority) that comes in handy when the Europeans come.

e.g. 10 monarch points = 1 point of religious unit, declaring an irregular [flower] war where you can fight enemy troops but neither side can capture territory costs 5 religious unity (numbers from thin air). This allows you to gain prestige and military tradition prior to contact and to slow European expansion after by mimicking the tactics that actually worked.

DCD: Differet tech groups make sense because tech serves three purposes:
1. It defines the types of things you can build (ships, armies, province improvements).
2. It defines the modifiers you get (number of ideas, PE, TE, morale).
3. It defines the actions you can take (blockade, explore, monopolize, etc.)

These should be related prima facea. Of course if you do that, that means that you have to have some fudge factors if you want someone to have differing access to different aspects of these. E.g. if you want Mongols to be able to force march (land tech X) but have inferior infantry (land tech X - Y) you need a bivariate function. Having different units lets you grant nations abilities that might make sense without the corresponding unit strengths (e.g. China might be able to build a military academy before it gets to western parity for infantry strength).

Frankly, I'd far rather have this system than one where I'm stuck forever with gimped options just to ensure that my deservedly crappy units stay crappy.
 

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Just want to remind everyone that this game is called *Europa* Universalis. The focus of the game is on Europe.

Paradox obviously hasn't put much time into the American nations. They are pretty bland. But that doesn't mean that they have some Euro-centric chauvinist conspiracy scheme to marginalize the accomplishments of non-European cultures.

"Not much effort" is one thing.

Giving them a ridiculous penalty to monarch stats, and insisting on a map that has nothing to do with anything real (we're not talking small mistakes here: we're talking the Aztec Empire expanding two thousand miles further north than it historically did. The European equivalent would be not only to have just France, Spain and Italy on the map as th eonly nations, but to have Spain go all the way north to Orleans, and France include the Low countries.

Given that they actually FIXED those borders for EU3 5.2, and that the monarch point penalties is (of course) brand new, one has to wonder how much of it is really "focusing effort elsewhere", and how much of it is just plain bad faith.
 

Kyoumen

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Well for starters, central Mexico doesn't lose 3 months of growth a year to snow and the Aztec were able to get two crops per year out that is a pretty big non-technological advantage. For another, Tenochtilan's density is also product of not being connected to the major epidemic belt running from Lisbon to Pusan without one of the major density dependent killing forces does allow you to maintain urban growth for a long time when other cities depopulate thanks to a 30% mortality rate with the black death.

While that's true, you're ignoring that most European nations had far superior soil to Mesoamerica, and that they benefitted from a much greater amount of flat land, while the Mesoamericans had to use various techniques to extract agriculture out of hillsides, while avoiding overerosion or soil exhaustion on levels that Europe generally never had to deal with. As well, their climate was far more variable than a lot of Europe, they had more, longer and more severe droughts in parts of Mesoamerica than Europe saw, and so forth. It is not an equal playing field and you can't list Mesoamerican advantages fairly without also pointing out they suffered severe disadvantages compared to Europeans. It is quite frankly a marvel they did as well as they did.

Most of the agricultural trade goods in EU are also not conducive to Mesoamerican agriculture. Sugar, Tobacco, and arguably Cotton and Tobacco work better for trade on a monoculture plantation style system worked with iron implements. Even grain exports tend to favor Europe as corn has more limited utility for bulk transport than wheat.

This is true, but it's also worth noting that the economy in EU is abstracted to the point of being little more than flavour. It is also true that Tenochtitlan was a fabulously wealthy and huge capital to the point of leaving some of the Spanish in absolute awe at seeing it, even in comparison to Spanish and French cities.

Sorry, I had to laugh at this one. You are asking for sources when you have given zero. In any event, I just did a quick Google scholar search, that gave me:

Neumann, Frank J. 1973. Paper: A sacred material in Aztec Ritual. History of Religions 13, 2: 149:159.

I'll just note I think you two misread each other a bit; Dafool actually gave the same number for paper that you did (half a million = 500,000), so I think he misread your original post and you missed it. Forgive me if I'm mistaken.

That being said, is there any reason to think the Aztecs needed more paper than they had? Necessity is the mother of invention. We don't know what might have happened if, for instance, they had further developed a bureaucracy that required a vast amount of paper. That is not merely to give them credit - the Mesoamericans accomplished a lot of astonishing feats that would be hard to believe if they hadn't happened, despite their indisputably less advanced technology. I honestly find it hard to believe they couldn't have made significant breakthroughs in creating paper in mass quantities if they needed to, considering the sort of things they did do.

As far as Quipu, you do realize that less than 10% of the information stored in that era was numeric, right? You also realize that once the Inca start dealing with similar states, their ability to deal with low information count because Sapa Inca owns everything (or just the state) is going to collapse quickly.

It's worth noting that we don't actually know how much information was on a quipu. The numeric part is the only part we can reasonably decipher, but there's quite a few features of surviving quipus that almost certainly conveyed information (such as use of colour) but noone living knows what exactly or how much.

As for the Inca dealing with new things, given how young, vigorous and astonishingly successful the empire was at the point of Spanish contact (ruling an area the size of the Western Roman Empire with a patchwork of languages and cultures, primarily mountainous, and having succeeded in tying all this together linguistically, culturally and economically, their road system, architecture, and much more), I really don't believe "they didn't" means "they couldn't". If the Incas hadn't existed, anybody postulating such an enormous, wealthy, powerful and advanced native state in the Americas pre-European contact would be laughed at. That doesn't mean they could handle anything, of course (they handled getting hit with civil war, smallpox and the Spanish in rapid succession poorly, but that's a combination that'd put nearly any polity through the wringer), and they had clear structural weaknesses (the amount of reliance on the Sapa Inca being an obvious one), but their track record is still pretty amazing.

The Aztecs not having artillery - no catapults, trebuchet, or ballista there. Why? In part because they lacked the tools needed to easily make them (bronze takes poorly to repetitive wood working) and partly because they had little need of them. Of course, artillery is going to completely hose Aztec fortifications and the shock component (let alone some grape grounds) are going to obliterate Aztec battle formations.

Sure, take one battle with European artillery against Aztecs and you'll win pretty handily unless the situation is absurdly against you, but that's not really relevant for two reasons. One, the Aztecs adapted frighteningly quickly to horses and I rather imagine could have done the same with artillery had it been used against them. More importantly though, artillery is essentially a non-factor in 15th century Mesoamerica and much of the 16th. Hernán Cortés had 14 pieces of artillery and lost it all when the Aztecs defeated him and killed most of his army as it attempted to flee Tenochtitlan - no wonder weapon, it turned out. Neither the technology nor the logistics existed at the time for European artillery to be a decisive weapon barring extraordinary circumstances.

Awful lot of talk with no sources there. We now most natives adopted the Horse whenever they could. Swords, like all iron implements, are more useful than obsidian for most tasks because they provide more reliable cutting power. We have no record (at least of which I am aware) of the use of atlatl after about 1600 as, shockingly most natives had adopted European weapons (every surviving atlatl I could find was one preserved as a Spanish curio).

Sure, I don't think anyone can seriously dispute European weapons were generally superior to native ones, though not to the extent that, for instance, Aztec weapons were not still very dangerous.

Of course, as you point out - surviving native cultures rapidly adopted European weapons and horses very quickly after encountering them. The enduring image of native North Americans is a tribesman on a horse with a rifle - and that's exactly what EUIII made absolutely no attempt to emulate, and what EUIV really should be. Top-heavy native empires might be pushovers with the advantage of surprise (although Cortés would be dead and his name forgotten to history if he didn't have thousands of native allies, something EU also doesn't emulate), but after the shocks of first contact and disease, surviving native cultures should be fighting back with considerably more success. Sheer force of numbers had more to do with the eventual extinction of independent native polities in the Americas, not an inability to fight back against equally sized forces - and it took centuries, not decades.

Yes and those prove what exactly? By definition such anecdotes are oddities and not representative. Pretty much once the fighting stopped (which I grant took a long time) we see the Spanish legal code move in (excepting in subordinate allied states) and European style things come about.

Well, the fighting didn't stop until after the end of the EU time period, in the Spanish colonies. It wasn't even really stopped in North America, though it was on its last gasps at that point.

How many years, in general, do you believe the native nations should be behind in technology?

Okay now take that number. Divide it by say 20. That should give us a fairly rough idea of how many tech levels behind the Mesoamericans should start.

This is precisely why tech levels, while (very) arguably a necessary abstraction, do a terrible job of representing the realities of "technology". What level of tech do you get monumental stonework that doesn't need mortar to be structurally stable, accurate calenders, terrace farming? Should the Incas start with the technology necessary to build roads, because they certainly did and very well at that in very difficult terrain? Should Inca metalwork mean they're considerably ahead of other native polities? Is gunpowder even that meaningful in 1492 when it is by no means a wonder weapon, merely one useful weapon technology among many, and predating very historically significant advances in melee weapons (like pike formations)? How do you represent the vast growth of the Inca - do you give them a massive monarch point bonus and then abruptly take it away once they reach a certain size and infrastructure level? How do you represent the sophisticated, settled, urbanised but non-agricultural west coast North American civilisations, which have no real parallel elsewhere on earth? Lower production technology? But they were wealthy and densely populated compared to most other native cultures in North America. Higher? But they didn't have agriculture!

You can't simply slap a number on technology and have it be anything other than a massive abstraction with a tenuous grasp on reality. So you can't say the game is really "being generous", because technology is not linear and the situation is vastly different.

I'll need some serious analysis of why the Mesoamericans should be able to adopt technologies that everywhere else took thousands of years in just decades.

How long did it take them to adopt horses and firearms?
 

Kyoumen

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Just want to remind everyone that this game is called *Europa* Universalis. The focus of the game is on Europe.

TheFluff, I don't wanna be mean, because you're new here and it's to be expected you haven't seen the literally hundreds of these types of threads that have been on these forums, so I'll just note:

1) It's called Europa Universalis because EU1 was based on a boardgame called Europa Universalis. Needless to say, the current game is no longer very similar to that board game.

2) You cannot have an accurate European experience if Navarre can waltz into Mesoamerica and easily take and hold the whole place (or having them conquering Tunisia, or have Portugal conquering large chunks of China in 1600). Ahistorical non-European areas make for ahistorical European gameplay, so even if you never ever want to touch a nation outside of Western Europe, you should want everywhere to be more accurately represented.

3) If I had a nickel for every time someone has posted "It's called Europa Universalis" in a thread like this, I would... okay, I'd not be rich. But I could buy you and me a copy of the game and probably have some change left over.
 
Last edited:

Eh up me duck

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TheFluff, I don't wanna be mean, because you're new here and it's to be expected you haven't seen the literally hundreds of these types of threads that have been on these forums, so I'll just note:

1) It's called Europa Universalis because EU1 was based on a boardgame called Europa Universalis. Needless to say, the current game is no longer very similar to that board game.

2) You cannot have an accurate European experience if Navarre can waltz into Mesoamerica and easily take and hold the whole place (or having them conquering Tunisia, or have Portugal conquering large chunks of China in 1600). Ahistorical non-European areas make for ahistorical European gameplay, so even if you never ever want to touch a nation outside of Western Europe, you should want everywhere to be more accurately represented.

3) If I had a nickel for every time someone has posted "It's called Europa Universalis" in a thread like this, I would... okay, I'd not be rich. But I could buy you and me a copy of the game and probably have some change left over.
It's a lot easier quicker to conquer most of Europe in eu3 before you set foot in the Americas but no one ever complains about Europe being under powered. This is just liberal whinging, honestly the eextent that some people exaggerate the achievements of the native states is breathtaking
 

calvinhobbeslik

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It's a lot easier quicker to conquer most of Europe in eu3 before you set foot in the Americas but no one ever complains about Europe being under powered. This is just liberal whinging, honestly the eextent that some people exaggerate the achievements of the native states is breathtaking

It's easier to conquer most of Europe than to conquer the Native Americans? What game are you playing.

Oh, you also seem to be another person whining that people don't think Europe is the beacon of civilization while everyone else were uncivilized savages.
 

Kyoumen

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It's a lot easier quicker to conquer most of Europe in eu3 before you set foot in the Americas but no one ever complains about Europe being under powered.

That's probably because what you just said is hilariously untrue.

This is just liberal whinging, honestly the eextent that some people exaggerate the achievements of the native states is breathtaking

Well, actual history does have a well-known liberal bias, I suppose.
 

Vishaing

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It's a lot easier quicker to conquer most of Europe in eu3 before you set foot in the Americas but no one ever complains about Europe being under powered. This is just liberal whinging, honestly the eextent that some people exaggerate the achievements of the native states is breathtaking
Huh, I didn't know I was "No One". Learn a new thing every day.
Granted I don't claim it's because Europe is Under-Powered, but rather that conquest is laughably ridiculous in general. But hey, when have you ever cared about the details of people's arguments?
Also the first time I've been accused of having a Liberal Bias!
 

Eh up me duck

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It's easier to conquer most of Europe than to conquer the Native Americans? What game are you playing.

Oh, you also seem to be another person whining that people don't think Europe is the beacon of civilization while everyone else were uncivilized savages.
You think you'd struggle to conquer most of Europe by 1520 as say, France? Certainly in eu3 this was the case, it was even easier as Poland or muscovy. So really paradox should fix Europe before they fix the Aztecs...right?

Or you could just accept that the human player can conquer anyone easily. But then you wouldn't have a cause on your sleeve and fire in your heart ;-)
 

calvinhobbeslik

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You think you'd struggle to conquer most of Europe by 1520 as say, France? Certainly in eu3 this was the case, it was even easier as Poland or muscovy. So really paradox should fix Europe before they fix the Aztecs...right?

Or you could just accept that the human player can conquer anyone easily. But then you wouldn't have a cause on your sleeve and fire in your heart ;-)

Well, I wasn't one to break the infamy limit, and I'm not sure why doing it with Poland/Muscowy is easier than France...
 

Eh up me duck

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Well, I wasn't one to break the infamy limit, and I'm not sure why doing it with Poland/Muscowy is easier than France...
I've never broken the infamy limit, or even come close. And I only inherit by accident - I never claim a throne. It's still easy to conquer Europe.

Muscovy is easier than France because it has missions that allow it to annex and core all the Russian miners within a year or two of the game start, and Poland can inherit Lithuania.

But the Aztecs have Brown skin, so obviously paradox hate them. Am I doing it right?