I think we can all be reasonably sure that EU5 will have pops, but even if we're not, lets take it for granted that they will, for sake of argument. I'm of the opinion that one of the main reasons to include pops in EU5 is to better represent the dramatic demographic shifts as the pre-existing New World populations collapsed through disease, and Europeans and Africans began to migrate (willingly or otherwise) to the New World. I'm going to set the historical background in a spoiler tag, just to help keep this post from looking too large.
Therein lies the balancing issue: if there are pops in EU5, it would make sense for a colonial player to want to establish settler colonies as early as possible and move as many pops over into the New World as possible, because that will form the nucleus of a large population from which the player can derive a lot of power, be it military or economic or whatever else. But it would seem to make so much sense that any other style of colonization would be totally outclassed by settler colonization. So, how could such a game play decision be balanced?
The population of what would become the Thirteen Colonies of British North America and then the United States went from a couple hundred people between Jamestown and Plymouth aroune 1620 to 10 million in 1820 - largely through natural population growth, but obviously immigration played an important part. In fact, between 1790 and 1820, the population more than doubled almost entirely through natural population growth alone.
What is interesting about this is that we're basically talking about going from a few fledgling outposts that could barely survive on their own (so you can treat it as any arbitrarily small size), to a population of 10 million in about 200 years. Or, put another way, the population increased by something around an order of 10,000 times. Meanwhile, the population of Europe and Asia both increased by a factor of 2-3 times.
Meanwhile, the population of typical Spanish colonies was relatively stagnant over this time period - largely because these colonies were largely populated by the pre-existing populations and their descendants, and those poulations were devastated by disease. Estimates, for example, of the population of what would become New Spain, before the Spanish conquest, put it around 20 million. Mexico would not reach that level of population until the 1940s. These estimates could be wrong, of course, but they can't make up for the difference in growth that the British settler colonies saw. The Spanish did not rely nearly as much on establishing settler colonies, with entire families of Spaniards coming to the new world, establishing towns of Spaniards in the New World. Keep in mind that, in all of this, the Spanish had more than a century head start on the English. Imagine if the English had settled Jamestown and Plymouth around 1500 rather than after 1600.
What is interesting about this is that we're basically talking about going from a few fledgling outposts that could barely survive on their own (so you can treat it as any arbitrarily small size), to a population of 10 million in about 200 years. Or, put another way, the population increased by something around an order of 10,000 times. Meanwhile, the population of Europe and Asia both increased by a factor of 2-3 times.
Meanwhile, the population of typical Spanish colonies was relatively stagnant over this time period - largely because these colonies were largely populated by the pre-existing populations and their descendants, and those poulations were devastated by disease. Estimates, for example, of the population of what would become New Spain, before the Spanish conquest, put it around 20 million. Mexico would not reach that level of population until the 1940s. These estimates could be wrong, of course, but they can't make up for the difference in growth that the British settler colonies saw. The Spanish did not rely nearly as much on establishing settler colonies, with entire families of Spaniards coming to the new world, establishing towns of Spaniards in the New World. Keep in mind that, in all of this, the Spanish had more than a century head start on the English. Imagine if the English had settled Jamestown and Plymouth around 1500 rather than after 1600.
Therein lies the balancing issue: if there are pops in EU5, it would make sense for a colonial player to want to establish settler colonies as early as possible and move as many pops over into the New World as possible, because that will form the nucleus of a large population from which the player can derive a lot of power, be it military or economic or whatever else. But it would seem to make so much sense that any other style of colonization would be totally outclassed by settler colonization. So, how could such a game play decision be balanced?