Dude, it's the first two or three pages of this very thread, just look it up.Santorini went of in something like 1600 BC; wasn't that the same time when some foreigners had invaded Egypt and there were considerable Israelite slaves?
Dude, it's the first two or three pages of this very thread, just look it up.Santorini went of in something like 1600 BC; wasn't that the same time when some foreigners had invaded Egypt and there were considerable Israelite slaves?
There are a few things that I don't think you understand. When Abraham fled sodom he took with him his nephew Lot. Lot (by his daughters) beget Ammon and Moab who begat the Ammonites and the Moabites respectively. Abraham begat by Sarai Isaac and he also begat by Hagar Ishmael. Ishmael begat the Ishmaelites and Isaac begat Jacob and Esau. Modern Arabs claim descendancy from Ishmael. Jacob (renamed Israel) begat the Israelites. Esau begat the Edomites. Those people that you mention in Neguev are the Edomites descendant from Esau. The people in the Transjordanian Highlands that you mentioned are the Ammonites in the north and the Moabites south of them. now because Lot is Abraham's nephew and Lot fled with Abraham from the destruction of Sodom it would be only natural that they should all worship YHWH and that their descendants should follow suit. It should come as no surprise and is no great revelation.
The Bible is a literary source, which may be used to reconstruct historical events but only with great care because the writers of its various chapters had their particular agendas which led them to distort or even make up facts. Archeology may be more fragmentary but it is less likely to be distorted and, in fact, it regularly yields new literary sources. For example, it gave us an inscription from Moab which describes their victory over the Israelites and their god YHW - their god, there is no evidence that Moabites or any other people north and east of Israel ever worshiped YHW during this time period and the source is quite specific about it being a god that Moabites considered foreign. That's strike one against Moab being descended from YHW-worshiping Lot. Strike two, your genealogies are impossible. Do you have any idea of the rate of reproduction you'd need to achieve those people's numbers in the generations the Bible specifies?
You jumped into this discussion using a paraphrase of the Old Testament as your only argument and you didn't even take the trouble to ask yourself if it was physically possible that an entire people was descended from one man within the space of five generations. Your first sentence was a ludicrous claim that one of the most knowledgeable people on this forum didn't understand. Your dismissal of archeology as a source is self-serving. Yeah, I'm not taking your argument seriously.
Right, so it does. But in another part, the Bible says that Moabites descend from Lot who is said to worship YHW. This led Stars_and_Bars to claim (post #91) that the Moabites would naturally worship YHW; that's what I was reacting to. I'm sure that any discrepancies between the bits that you refer to and SaB's inference will be explained away, though, Biblical literalism is surprisingly flexible.I don't understand the sentence in bold at all. I'm pretty sure the Bible says the Moabites worshipped Chemosh and his ilk.
The Bible is a literary source, which may be used to reconstruct historical events but only with great care because the writers of its various chapters had their particular agendas which led them to distort or even make up facts. Archeology may be more fragmentary but it is less likely to be distorted and, in fact, it regularly yields new literary sources. For example, it gave us an inscription from Moab which describes their victory over the Israelites and their god YHW - their god, there is no evidence that Moabites or any other people north and east of Israel ever worshiped YHW during this time period and the source is quite specific about it being a god that Moabites considered foreign. That's strike one against Moab being descended from YHW-worshiping Lot. Strike two, your genealogies are impossible. Do you have any idea of the rate of reproduction you'd need to achieve those people's numbers in the generations the Bible specifies?
You jumped into this discussion using a paraphrase of the Old Testament as your only argument and you didn't even take the trouble to ask yourself if it was physically possible that an entire people was descended from one man within the space of five generations. Your first sentence was a ludicrous claim that one of the most knowledgeable people on this forum didn't understand. Your dismissal of archeology as a source is self-serving. Yeah, I'm not taking your argument seriously.
Right, so it does. But in another part, the Bible says that Moabites descend from Lot who is said to worship YHW. This led Stars_and_Bars to claim (post #91) that the Moabites would naturally worship YHW; that's what I was reacting to. I'm sure that any discrepancies between the bits that you refer to and SaB's inference will be explained away, though, Biblical literalism is surprisingly flexible.
As other forumites have stated before me, just the genealogy you use in your post is a physical and biological impossibility.
And I also subscribe to their asessments about Biblical (or any other religious) literalism. The Bible is a compilation of texts written by human beings during a long period of time, in most cases rewritten and modified time and again. And it can and must be studied in a neutral (non-sectarian) and rigorous manner, which means that it must be subjected to textual analysis (which by now is two centuries old), and analyzed according to its historical context and comparing it to the archeological record.
And all these lines of study (textual anaylisis, historical analysis and archaelogical excavations) make abundantly clear that to take the Old Testament at face value, logic and critical thinking must be discarded. And to do that, religious faith is needed. But what's being discussed in this thread is not religious doctrine based on faith, but the historicity of the Biblical narrative. And the only way to adress that is by the methods listed above.
I would find it quite natural to subject the various interpretations of the bible to analysis from other sources. However in my reading of the bible never have I found it possible to conclude that there is a "literal" interpretation. as such there is not one settled position that can be discarded wholesale. There are many interpretations which are inherently flawed that must be revised/discarded. Now if I am to discount certain facets of an interpretation or start from scratch after discarding it entirely I will certainly need a reason to do so. Therefore there must be a class of historical sources, granted I put more credence in Literary sources above prehistorical sources, but certainly there must be a conflict/disagreement. if there is no such conflict then I am not inclined to discount it as a theory.
Now there is much controversy over whether or not the entire, the majority, or just the ruling class of the Israelites could all be descended from one man (Jacob). Likewise the question of whether or not the entire, the majority, or just the ruling class can be descended from a single ruler for the Edomites, Ammonites, or the Moabites is also controversial. I would discard the claim that the entirety of a population say the Israelites must be descended from Abraham for that claim is far too absolute and evidence that a single "Israelite" is not descendant from Abraham would disprove it. It should be noted however that the suffix -ite generally means that the population claims to be descended from the prefixed person, as such to say that an Israelite is not descended from Israel (Jacob) would be counter-intuitive in that sense because it would mean that they are not in fact an Israelite. All of that aside, I would like to evaluate claims at hand.
I would interpret the book of Exodus with the following claims on which I shall give my opinion, but this is what I interpret the claims to be. It is recorded that Israel(Jacob) had twelve sons by his four wives (Genesis 35:22-26) I see no reason to doubt this claim. It is also recorded that when the entirety of Jacob's family (perhaps household) entered to live in Egypt they numbered 70 (Exodus 1:4). It is recorded that when the Israelites left Egypt they left in a group of six hundred thousand men (not including children and women are not counted) with a large number of animals. It says that this was a "mixed multitude" which I interpret to mean that it wasn't only the Israelites that left Egypt. This would fit with the claim bounced around earlier regarding other Semitic peoples migrating into Egypt for purposes of work and the like. The number of course is of some issue, however because 600,000 is only referring to grown men which would mean that the total population of people who left Egypt would probably be twice that or more and that it a concern because the population of Egypt during this time period is estimated to between 2 and 4 million, though it would fit with the claim that the Israelites (and other Semites) grew to a population size that would make the pharaoh feel threatened. It should be noted that modern estimates of population are not without assumption and possess fundamentally assumptions about how much the land could support and how densely cities/houses could be populated.
I do not find it to be a physical impossibility that 70 people could be descended/affiliated to one man by the time of his death, nor is it a physical impossibility that 600,000 (or some unknown fraction of 600,000) men plus their women and children could be descended/affiliated from one man. These do seem to be generally improbable and perhaps "statistically impossible". It is beyond my current ability to answer such a question. I would however, not discount the possibility without sufficient support. In statistics (given a null hypothesis) we never say that the evidence has proven the Null hypothesis, but statisticians do reject hypotheses because given a certain distribution/model they are considered to be highly unlikely. I have never thought the absence of evidence to be evidence of absence nor do I consider that I should reject a claim because i cannot prove it, I would reject it if it is (somehow) proven false. given all of this I can only say what I distinctly think the question to be a what might be evidence of proof or disproof.
following statistical methods, a model for growth (perhaps approximate to exponential growth) would be made to consider what would be necessary for a man with four wives to produce a family (including spouses) that number seventy by the time of his death. It wouldn't have to be necessarily at the time of his death for Jacob is claimed to live in Egypt 17 years, of course he is also recorded to live to be 147 but that is another can of worms which I do not think I can answer. Then from there a person would make a model of how 70 people might become 600,000+ or some fraction of that number is an ill defined period of time. Then given the models that would make that possible which to us seem improbable, some measure of possibility or credence might be given for such a possibility. My method of answering the question is vague because I do not hold too tightly to settled positions and I am willing to reinterpret scripture and other historical documents as new evidence and new opinions present themselves. However, I am strictly against discounting something without proper evidence.
Here is the time for the disclaimer. It is probable that I fight to defend some claims more thoroughly than others, that I give credence to some sources more highly than others, that I disagree with certain temperaments more firmly than others, and that there will be opinions and sources of which I am entirely unaware. I find it almost inevitable that this behavior will happen some of the time as it will happen for everyone, It is my hope that I commit such behaviors sparingly and not egregiously. I do not claim to be infallible nor do I claim to be omniscient.
Now there is much controversy over whether or not the entire, the majority, or just the ruling class of the Israelites could all be descended from one man (Jacob). ...
You just follow the Bible too close. I rather accept that is the recorded myth of the Israel (and is similar to nearby middle east peoples' myths). Most of the Bible story can have acceptable
scientific explanations if we scale down the miracles
I don't think anything could explain or justifies the red sea parting myth however.
I don't think anything could explain or justifies the red sea parting myth however.
WHy not say, what if they crossed right near the north end where it's shallow and kind of peters out instead of finding somewhere really far away?
Or say that the crossing the sea bit was an embellishment tacked on later to make the story more dramatic or to incorporate another story that it's original form has since been forgotten?
Where as those manna from heaven trees that are now a tourist attraction, as they're where their crossing ended up, so wherever that is, maybe they took a boat? and then the oral history said 'Crossed the Red Sea under Miraculous Circumstances' meaning against all luck they found boats, but never mentioned the boats and centuries later someone noticed they had no idea what those miraculous circumstances were so assumed it meant the sea being made crossable.
Actually there is a possibility. Undersea canals between the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea have been found. And ~1600 BC almost the entire island of Santorini blew up as the volcano there collapsed into the sea. That triggered one monster of a tsunami which most likely is a large part of the reason for why the Minoans disappeared. That tsunami deposited sediment at ridiculous heights on Crete, so it is known that it was really really large. Egypt lies unobstructed from Santorini so the tsunami will have reached the Mediterreanean coast of Egypt. It is not impossible that it could---at least in part---have influenced part of the Red Sea.I don't think anything could explain or justifies the red sea parting myth however.
WHy not say, what if they crossed right near the north end where it's shallow and kind of peters out instead of finding somewhere really far away?
Or say that the crossing the sea bit was an embellishment tacked on later to make the story more dramatic or to incorporate another story that it's original form has since been forgotten?
Where as those manna from heaven trees that are now a tourist attraction, as they're where their crossing ended up, so wherever that is, maybe they took a boat? and then the oral history said 'Crossed the Red Sea under Miraculous Circumstances' meaning against all luck they found boats, but never mentioned the boats and centuries later someone noticed they had no idea what those miraculous circumstances were so assumed it meant the sea being made crossable.
Actually there is a possibility. Undersea canals between the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea have been found. And ~1600 BC almost the entire island of Santorini blew up as the volcano there collapsed into the sea. That triggered one monster of a tsunami which most likely is a large part of the reason for why the Minoans disappeared. That tsunami deposited sediment at ridiculous heights on Crete, so it is known that it was really really large. Egypt lies unobstructed from Santorini so the tsunami will have reached the Mediterreanean coast of Egypt. It is not impossible that it could---at least in part---have influenced part of the Red Sea.
And just before a tsunami hits the sea disappears before coming rushing back at full force drowning everybody so unfortunate to be caught by it.
Also the crossing of the red sea could have been a crossing of some inlet on the mediterrenean coast.
The manna is easier to explain. When you are hungry and need to eat some unnamed strange fruits for too many years. Then these fruits will soon be god-send manna.