EEP Spain

[unmerged(8606)]

Originally posted by Isaac Brock
In addition I would move Barcelona to Lisbon in say the 1430's. Even in 1419 Catalonia was past it's prime as a trade hub.

I rather would move it in the 1440's to Valencia, as it became the main trade city of the crown of Aragón in the second half of the 15th century. Finally I'd remove that one at the beginning of the 16th century. But I think that the Tago CoT should be in from the beginning.

 

[unmerged(9404)]

Don't move the COTs around to much it would get conusing for the players

 

[unmerged(6159)]

I really don't think there should be two iberian COTs before the Sevilla event. They will be too small to be of much use. That's why I suggested Barcelone->Tago in the mid 15th century.

 

[Havard]

Originally posted by Havard
Because it's still only beta and they could be removed. Not very likely, but it could happend. Hence the last part of Isaac's sentence above: "until it's out of beta".

Point proved with the release of 1.07 without the removecot command...

 

[Garbon]

Originally posted by Havard
Point proved with the release of 1.07 without the removecot command...

Or just not added yet if this is true:

Originally posted by Moonwalker
So to clear things up:

The 1.07-patch is an official patch containing all changes made in the 1.06-betas up to eu2_106_10b.

 

[unmerged(6828)]

On the rousillon issue- a catalan culture is necessary for Catalonia including Roussillion, which should not be Iberian

We should make catalan available for Spain to get, although they'd have to suffer for it.

I think by 1419, Lisbon was enough of a trade center to warrant the COT, rather than Barcelona, by EU2 time the Portugese had begun to control Iberian and parts of North African trade

 

[Havard]

Originally posted by Garbon
Or just not added yet if this is true:

I didn't say it might come in a later patch. But the EEP is still targeted at the official release (i.e. 1.07) right?

 

[Garbon]

As far as I know.

 

[unmerged(6159)]

I prefer not to reopen the iberian culture debate.

 

[Chengar Qordath]

There is a thread in the main discussion forum stating that the capital of Aragon should be in Barcelona. The people arguing that do seem to have good historical backup. Perhaps someone with decission-making authority should look in on that thread.

 

[Chengar Qordath]

The link that thread I mentioned above is here

 

[unmerged(8606)]

Originally posted by Chengar Qordath
There is a thread in the main discussion forum stating that the capital of Aragon should be in Barcelona. The people arguing that do seem to have good historical backup. Perhaps someone with decission-making authority should look in on that thread.

This has been argued several times, but unfortunately it has never been implemented, although being a very easy change...

 

[unmerged(6159)]

There wasn't much of a real capital, but I think putting it in Barcelona makes sense for several reasons. Let's do it.

 

[Norrefeldt]

I support the move of the capital to Barcelona. And it also makes sense that Aragon doesn't revolt from Spain (should the be able to form from Catalonia?) and Catalonia doesn't revolt from Aragon.
Three changes then.

 

[unmerged(6159)]

Why shouldn't Aragon revolt from Spain? Wasn't there a big problem in the 1590's?

I agree with Catalonia/Aragon, or we'll see Aragon's capital end up somewhere awful.

 

[Norrefeldt]

Since Spain was a union of Aragon and Casille none of them should revolt into existance afterwards. Like Poland and Lithuania basically. I might be wrong, but even if there were tensions and problems, was there ever a way back? New capital and all.

 

[unmerged(6159)]

I'd say in both 1590's and in 1706 (or whenever) Aragon came close to reasserting itself. 1640 was definitely Catlonia, and 1706 is arguable.

After 1714 I agree that a unified Spain made it hard for Aragon to reappear. But Scotland can revolt from England after the act of Union, and the Aragon-Castille union was pretty one sided.

 

[unmerged(8606)]

Originally posted by mnorrefeldt
Since Spain was a union of Aragon and Casille none of them should revolt into existance afterwards. Like Poland and Lithuania basically. I might be wrong, but even if there were tensions and problems, was there ever a way back? New capital and all.

The union was only at the level of the kings: both kingdoms shared the same king, but they kept their own governments and parliaments. I wouldn't see as a problem the possibility of indep. of Aragon or Catalonia after the formation of Spain. As Isaac has pointed out, however, after 1714 this became much more difficult, as all autonomous government disappeared

 

[unmerged(6159)]

Still those examples are mostly "Catalonia" rather than "Aragon", Charles VI/III recieved much more support it Catalonia than anywhere else in the crown of Aragon, and the 1640 revolt was confined exclusively to Catalonia as far as I know.

 

[unmerged(8606)]

I fear that there is some misunderstanding on the name "Aragon":

1) On one hand it refers to the geographical and historical region known as Aragón, which corresponds to the present-day region of Aragón and approx. to the EU province of Aragón.

2) On the other hand the generical name "kingdom of Aragón" is an oversimplification for the "commonwealth" formed by Aragón (in the first sense of (1)), Catalonia, Valencia, Mallorca and, during different years Sicily, Sardinia, Naples and Provence. When the "commonwealth" was formed by the union of the kingdom of Aragón and the county of Barcelona, the highest title was that of "kingdom" which Aragón had, while Barcelona was only a "county", hence the simplification of calling the country "kingdom of Aragón".