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Mister Maf

Second Lieutenant
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Mar 2, 2017
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Both this OP and the linked thread are incorrect in relatively small ways.
Let's take a scenario and explain how it's calculated.
A sherman 75 with no veterancy fires at something for the first time at 999 meters.
It has 5 accuracy, which is modified -1 due to no veterancy.
a 2d6 is rolled, if it at or under 4 (a 1 1, 1 2, 2 1, 2 2, 3 1, 1 3) it hits. As there are 6 possible successful rolls out of 36 total combinations the chance to hit is 6/36 or approximately 16%.
Each veterancy level accuracy is increased by 1, so a single veterancy unit behaves as you would expect its accuracy value to intuitively.
Each shot fired without moving at the same target increases the accuracy by 1, up to +2 I think, so the third shot and onwards is the maximum accuracy.
Any questions?
Handy chart.
UI6q9hP.png

Edit: Fixed my example. Sorry, I had just woken up.
Question. So does shooting at max range incur the -2 penalty mentioned in both OPs? Your example has the tank shooting at max range with a total accuracy of 4 (base 5 minus 1 for no veterancy), instead of 2 (5 minus 1 minus 2 for range). If not, then what are the range modifiers?

As I'm understanding it, the accuracy modifiers are:
  • Base value

  • Veterancy:
    0 stars = -1
    1 star = +0
    2 stars = +1

  • Range = ??

  • Consecutive shots with a cannon without moving, regardless of whether or not the shot hits
    Opening shot = +0
    Second shot = +1
    Third and all subsequent = +2

  • Moving = -2
What am I missing?

Also, how exactly does penetration work with the 2d6 system? Is it basically "apply distance modifier, subtract the difference, that's your number on the cumulative percentage table"?