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unmerged(179588)

Corporal
Nov 19, 2009
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This is a question that I have been asking myself for some time...
Do minorities really vote when the ruling party has a Full Citizenship policy?
At the moment I am ruling a Great Bolivia with great numbers of minorities (my nat pop is barely a 50%). I had a FC party in power but they lost he elections against a LC party. Surprisingly the polls after the elections showed exactly the same numbers than the day before the elections, but they should have changed because a lot of people won´t be allowed to vote in the next ones.
Am I missing something here?
 

unmerged(131989)

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It's to do with voting rights. If you have universal suffrage then everyone can vote. Check the politics screen in comparison to your total POP setup with different levels of voting rights to see what I mean.
 

unmerged(136147)

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I do think that people in colonies vote when you have a full citizenship party in power, because of my experience from trying to get socialists in power.
When I had a conservative party with restrictive minority policy and tried to use the 'set poor tax to 100% to get socialists' trick during an election it failed because I always use my biggest pops for clerks and therefore simply have a too small poor population in my homeland once I have substantially industrialized.
After I set the socialists manually in power and tried the same trick at the next election the socialists got re-elected. So I guess my poor pops in the colonies voted for them.

Of course this could be coincidence :eek:o
 

unmerged(131989)

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If you try different voting rights with differing accepted states/colonies (it's easy to do so by looking at the USA in the vanilla 1914 scenario) and look at the political pie chart of what your POPs will vote for in the political interface then the pattern should be clear.
 

unmerged(179588)

Corporal
Nov 19, 2009
46
0
Ok, I understand what happened. In this situation everybody was voting because although they were minorities they were not at the colonies, but at states.
It makes things a bit different that I thought for countries ruled by a minority of (normally white) people while having a much larger population of indigenous people (Bolivia or Orange are 2 examples), because if you have suffrage those indigenous peoples will vote.

Did I get it right?
 

Alyosha

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In the case of Oranje or Transvaal large number of non-accepted culture POPs can make it easier to get Full_Citizenship parties in power on Universal, which can improve immigration attractiveness.