No, the Germans operated nearly 1000 subs while the Americans operated under 300. The American subs were much more effective on a ship by ship basis though, sinking about half as many tons as the German subs did despite their inferior numbers and suffering "only" a 20% loss rate.
Interesting. Not sure where i got the 60 subs figure from, as i just checked Max Hastings book and i couldnt find the reference anywhere.
My mistake.
The British also ran out of guns, uniforms and ammo because pre war policy had been to prevent India from being able to produce most of these things for themselves.
Funny that, because that is exactly what the Indians did when the British found there was a supply shortage.
That was awfully nice of the British considering that a lot of the Quit India movement was about how Britain had systematically repressed industry in India in order to make it a suitable market for British manufactured goods. British doesn't get credit for bashing in India's head with a hammer just because it felt good when they stopped.
Did you honest just say that? Indian industry boomed from the inception of the British Raj with many companies (including some famous ones like Tartar Steel) still around today. India was rapidly industrialising and by WW2 had a hell of a lot of industry of its own.
It was this industry that was retooled to supply the British and Indian troops in the Pacific theatre.
Oh yes, the "colonialism is justified on the grounds of helping those poor benighted brown peoples" argument. India doesn't have a common language besides English and it actually doesn't make sense as a single country anyway
.
They were united in their dislike of the British, but once the British left, Indian unity has had trouble finding a basis. The British also didn't end civil and religious war, they just did their best to see that the result of each conflict would redound to the benefit of the British. The British also often encouraged religious tensions as a way of defusing opposition to British rule. The partition of Bengal was a British idea, supposedly for administrative reasons, but the result was the fragmentation of the previously united Bengali independence movement into separate Hindu and Muslim camps.
The religious hatred between the Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims went back over a 1000 years. You cant blame that on the British in any way.
As for anti-british sentiment, it depended on the group. Minorities such as the 'martial races', and also large portions of the Hindu population were actually rather pro-british. The main anti-british sentiment came from the Muslims of India, who saw the British as the reason for the fall of their 'glorious' Mughal empire and the end of their rule over the peoples the Muslims saw as lesser.
And yes, the British did end religious and civil war as, once Britain had control over the subcontinent, they prevented the usual conflicts between Indian princes and religious groups that would have erupted into war.
And one country makes sense. The fact Indian would fight Indian over petty things is ridiculous. And the British saw it as ridiculous. There is no reason India cannot be a fully functioning, united country. The Indians are more than capable of making it happen.
It started with bad weather, but that wasn't what led to famine. The statistics were bad, the government destroyed anything that the Japanese might capture including food, and Churchill refused to release British shipping to help in late 1943, (when that graph says that u-boats were getting sunk in record numbers.)
Churchill refused to release shipping because, like many in the British government at the time, he was paranoid about Britain running out of supplies and starving to death.
You say the statistics were off, but there
was enough food in India, as the British said, but it was internal politics and religious conflict that prevented food reaching Bengal. Hindus and Sikhs would rather give their surpluses to other Hindus and Sikhs, and not the Muslims who they hated due to the history of the Mughals.
What the Bengal famine said to India was that the 'benefits' of British rule were illusory.
I dont think many Indians except Muslim Indians outside Bengal lost sleep over the Bengal famine. Britain and its rule over India brought many benefits. A famine would not undo all that.
Really? You ask for a source on his info and then assert that the Brits didn't discriminate based on what exactly? They certainly put all Indians into racial categories. Sikhs and Nepali's were "martial races" while others fell in other boxes.
The British said what they saw. They put different peoples into different 'boxes' for easier management. It is called 'categorizing'. It helps when ruling and/or when dealing with them diplomatically. Not quite sure that could be called 'seeing people as lesser'.
That guy totally sees Indians as his equals.
Totally forgetting the fact that Indians were employed to do that.
Employed. What he is doing is no different to a shoe shiner in Europe. He is most likely a domestic servant employed by the household. It by no means is evidence for seeing someone as 'lesser'.
By that logic, every image of a boy shining someones shoes in the west is an image of the one getting his shoes shined 'looking down on' and thinking the boy is lesser.
Yes, except they were made to be dependent on a global empire which they didn't run. British policy had always been to make India dependent on the British global empire and its shipping.
You seem to be making no distinction between East India Company rule and British Raj rule. What you said is mostly true for the former. India was dependent on the British for goods, usually given at discount prices i return for raw materials.
What you said does not apply to the British Raj, especially as late as WW2.
Indian industry had blossomed, with much of the funding actually coming from the British themselves. India was producing a lot of its own things by 1939. The fact India was rather heavily industrialised is proven by the fact that the deficit in military supplies and equipment was filled very quickly by Indian industry after it had retooled.
The Brits were shipping food to Greece which is a foreign country instead of those who were supposedly British subjects in Bengal.
The British shipped food to Greece because Greece was on the front line of the European theatre and its food was running out.
Not so in India. Whilst parts of India were enduring famine conditions, other parts had huge food surpluses. The British knew this, as they made it their business to know everything in their empire. this is where Churchill's comment about there been enough food in India to feed Bengal comes from.
There was, but as i said above internal, millennia old chasms of both political and religious nature prevented food been delivered to Bengal were the famine hit hardest. Eventually the British brought in relief and forced food shipments from the rest of India to Bengal.
Britain's mistake was not taking direct control of the surplus food and distributing it themselves instead of relying on the Indian administration to do it themselves.
There was actually enough food in India during the Bengal famine but the democratically elected provincial governments in areas like the panjab where there was plenty of food had banned the export of food to Bengal. You could actually argue that if the british had been more dictatorial towards the Indians the problem would have been solved.
Well said. It was internal fissures and British overconfidence in the Indian administrations that exacerbated the famine.
The British did not
want the Bengali's to starve.