Some ideas:
France controlled the city of Perpignan and the entire province of Rousillon in 1492. France also controlled the provinces of Artois and Franche Comte. Historically, France gave up these territories to their respecitve owners so that they could lay claim to the throne of Naples. Perhaps in the Napoli events, France could scede these cities to Austria and Spain if they chose to use their claim on Milan and Naples.
Would France be considered "at war" with Austria and Aragon in 1492?
That next brings me to Aragon. Should they be an independent vassal of Castile/Spain in 1492?
Should Pskov and Ryazan be vassals of Moscowy in 1492?
France controlled the city of Perpignan and the entire province of Rousillon in 1492. France also controlled the provinces of Artois and Franche Comte. Historically, France gave up these territories to their respecitve owners so that they could lay claim to the throne of Naples. Perhaps in the Napoli events, France could scede these cities to Austria and Spain if they chose to use their claim on Milan and Naples.
Would France be considered "at war" with Austria and Aragon in 1492?
That next brings me to Aragon. Should they be an independent vassal of Castile/Spain in 1492?
Should Pskov and Ryazan be vassals of Moscowy in 1492?