Count of Chalkidike's Liege

[TheIronTalon]

I notice in the 1066 scenario that the Count of Chalkidike starts as the vassal of the Doux of Adrianopolis when his land actually belongs to the Basileus' duchy, Thessalonika. Is that an oversight or intentional? I don't know much about the history of 1066 but wouldn't the Basileus be concerned his own de jure Count has a different liege?

I am only asking as I am playing as the Count of Thessalia who's liege is the Basileus' himself. It's a relatively easy task to get hold of the Duchy for myself by sending the Basileus a demand for it after meeting the necessary requirements. Of course, then the problem becomes the Count of Chalkidike is not my direct vassal.

 

[darviathar]

It has always been that way. If you start in 1066, the Dux of Adrianople is itching to rebel, so generally I used to just let it happen, whip him quickly, and seize that county from him.

 

[TheIronTalon]

It has always been that way. If you start in 1066, the Dux of Adrianople is itching to rebel, so generally I used to just let it happen, whip him quickly, and seize that county from him.

Alright, seems reasonable. I was just curious if there was a historical reason for the county being the Doux's vassal and not the vassal of the duchy he belongs to, Thessalonika.