Could the Princes in the Tower have survived?

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Crookback

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Jan 9, 2005
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Yes, it's time for another of these threads!

I have recently been reading articles and listening to podcast episodes by the author Matt Lewis, who has written a number of books including 'The Survival of the Princes in the Tower' (which I've yet to read but intend to buy in the near future).

In short, Lewis - a Ricardian, unsurprisingly - believes that both Lambert Simnel and Perkin Warbeck may well have been the real deal, which explains the highly unusual reaction to them. For example, Simnel was crowned King Edward (crucially, we don't which regnal number was given) in Dublin and supported by various Yorkist nobles, including John de la Pole, Earl of Lincoln, who was himself a senior Yorkist with an undisputed claim to the throne. Lewis' key argument here is that Lincoln would have known both of the princes, as well as Edward, Earl of Warwick, and so if we assume that Simnel was indeed a fraud then why would he have been crowned in a religious service by the Bishop of Meath, and why would Lincoln - a genuine Plantagenet through his mother - have put aside his own claim and backed Simnel? As we know that Warwick was in the Tower (where he remained until his execution in 1499) we have to assume that Lincoln - and others - either genuinely believed that Simnel was the real Edward V or knew he was a fraud (a doppelganger of either Edward V or Warwick) but chose to use him as a puppet anyway. The latter is the established Tudor version of events, but is very odd when you ask yourself what the point of such a charade would be. Why would Yorkist nobles crown a peasant they intended to later kill or overthrow? Why not just crown Lincoln and unite behind him when he seems to have been one of the chief rebels anyway?

For what it's worth, I'm not a Ricardian and I do think that the most likely scenario is the princes were both dead by the end of 1483. However, the Simnel narrative and the fact that Lincoln and other supporters went on to fight and die at the battle of Stoke Field suggests these people were very serious about their boy.

Likewise, Perkin Warbeck seems a fascinating character and has been in the news again lately as a result of the claims pushed by Philippa Langley, the woman who led the campaign to find the remains of Richard III. It could be argued that if we assume Warbeck was a fraud then he was one of the most convincing conmen in history, as he managed to rally a number of foreign rulers and Yorkist nobles to his banner, and Langley has provided evidence of documents in which he is referred to as a son of Edward IV. Whilst it is true that Edward IV's sister Margaret of Burgundy supported Warbeck and believed him to be her nephew, it is unlikely that she actually ever met either of Edward IV's sons as they were born after Margaret left England to marry Charles the Bold. Therefore, either Margaret genuinely believed Warbeck, or she knew he was a fraud but supported him for political reasons in order to undermine Henry VII - the problem is that we don't know which is the case.

The most interesting aspect of the Warbeck saga is not so much what Warbeck himself said or did, but Henry VII's reaction to him. By all accounts Henry seems to have been genuinely unnerved by Warbeck's presence and influence, and allocated substantial resources towards either silencing him or bringing him back to England for interrogation. What makes this so fascinating is that it does suggest that Henry didn't know for sure that the princes were dead, as had their deaths been an accepted fact and had Henry known where they were buried then he would surely have laughed off Warbeck's outlandish claims. Likewise, Elizabeth of York would surely have been among the first to try to get to the bottom of what happened, and she'd been living in London throughout Richard III's reign and would have been privy to any gossip about her brothers. As far as is known, Elizabeth and Warbeck never met - which is either very interesting or very uninteresting, depending on your point of view, as she would have undoubtedly been the best surviving witness to the brother she grew up with, and her reaction would likely have told Henry all he needed to know. (Conversely, although Edward V and Elizabeth would have been acquainted, they were not close as Edward grew up in Ludlow as Prince of Wales).

If you're not up to speed on the Simnel and Warbeck uprisings then they're well worth reading about. There's no firm evidence either way, and both Richard III and Henry VII had a lot of incriminating documents destroyed (including, I imagine, documents we don't know existed), and of course the Tudors were pretty well-versed in PR. Lewis' view is that the Tudors put a definite spin on what actually happened, and tried to muddy the waters of the Simnel uprising by having him be a pretender to Warwick rather than Edward V, and that the treatment of Warbeck - which included facial disfigurement and a forced confession - seems very strange; as does the fact that Warbeck and Warwick were executed together after an alleged escape attempt.

Of course, it may well be that none of this is important and that the boys did indeed die in 1483. We know that workmen digging in the Tower during the 17th century found the skeletons of two children, but they have never been DNA tested and there's no way to prove whether they are the remains of the princes or not.

What do you think happened? For me, the main problems with the 'Richard III is innocent' theory are:

a) we know Richard killed plenty of people on his way to the throne (Rivers, Grey and Hastings for sure; potentially Henry VI and his son before that) so why not two more?;
b) we know that a lot of people assumed (or knew?) the princes were already dead by 1483;
c) why would Henry Tudor make an oath to marry Elizabeth of York and unite the houses if her brothers are still alive?;
d) if Richard had kept them alive, what did he do with them? where did they go? (possible scenarios: John Evans theory, Richard smuggled abroad/Warbeck theory)
e) what was the October 1483 Buckingham rebellion about? did he turn against Richard because the boys were dead, or did the boys have to die because of such rebellions?

I acknowledge that the claims of people like Lewis and Langley are fascinating and richly-drawn, but I also think the most boring and logical explanation is the most likely: Richard had them killed, and they're the two skeletons found in the 17th century. I do think there are important questions about related events and people's motives, but I also think that if Richard was willing to murder his brother's in-laws and best friend then he'd no qualms about killing his sons if that meant a more secure hold on the throne. Whereas I wouldn't be overly surprised if any of the other theories turns out to be what actually happened (seeing as we lack so little concrete evidence in any direction), I do think it seems likely that the general consensus was that they were dead by the autumn of 1483, as Buckingham's rebellion and the behaviour of the women at court moving towards a Tudor alliance suggests that their hopes now rest with Elizabeth's claim rather than the princes'.

Any thoughts?
 
Yes, it's time for another of these threads!

I have recently been reading articles and listening to podcast episodes by the author Matt Lewis, who has written a number of books including 'The Survival of the Princes in the Tower' (which I've yet to read but intend to buy in the near future).

In short, Lewis - a Ricardian, unsurprisingly - believes that both Lambert Simnel and Perkin Warbeck may well have been the real deal, which explains the highly unusual reaction to them. For example, Simnel was crowned King Edward (crucially, we don't which regnal number was given) in Dublin and supported by various Yorkist nobles, including John de la Pole, Earl of Lincoln, who was himself a senior Yorkist with an undisputed claim to the throne. Lewis' key argument here is that Lincoln would have known both of the princes, as well as Edward, Earl of Warwick, and so if we assume that Simnel was indeed a fraud then why would he have been crowned in a religious service by the Bishop of Meath, and why would Lincoln - a genuine Plantagenet through his mother - have put aside his own claim and backed Simnel? As we know that Warwick was in the Tower (where he remained until his execution in 1499) we have to assume that Lincoln - and others - either genuinely believed that Simnel was the real Edward V or knew he was a fraud (a doppelganger of either Edward V or Warwick) but chose to use him as a puppet anyway. The latter is the established Tudor version of events, but is very odd when you ask yourself what the point of such a charade would be. Why would Yorkist nobles crown a peasant they intended to later kill or overthrow? Why not just crown Lincoln and unite behind him when he seems to have been one of the chief rebels anyway?

For what it's worth, I'm not a Ricardian and I do think that the most likely scenario is the princes were both dead by the end of 1483. However, the Simnel narrative and the fact that Lincoln and other supporters went on to fight and die at the battle of Stoke Field suggests these people were very serious about their boy.

Likewise, Perkin Warbeck seems a fascinating character and has been in the news again lately as a result of the claims pushed by Philippa Langley, the woman who led the campaign to find the remains of Richard III. It could be argued that if we assume Warbeck was a fraud then he was one of the most convincing conmen in history, as he managed to rally a number of foreign rulers and Yorkist nobles to his banner, and Langley has provided evidence of documents in which he is referred to as a son of Edward IV. Whilst it is true that Edward IV's sister Margaret of Burgundy supported Warbeck and believed him to be her nephew, it is unlikely that she actually ever met either of Edward IV's sons as they were born after Margaret left England to marry Charles the Bold. Therefore, either Margaret genuinely believed Warbeck, or she knew he was a fraud but supported him for political reasons in order to undermine Henry VII - the problem is that we don't know which is the case.

The most interesting aspect of the Warbeck saga is not so much what Warbeck himself said or did, but Henry VII's reaction to him. By all accounts Henry seems to have been genuinely unnerved by Warbeck's presence and influence, and allocated substantial resources towards either silencing him or bringing him back to England for interrogation. What makes this so fascinating is that it does suggest that Henry didn't know for sure that the princes were dead, as had their deaths been an accepted fact and had Henry known where they were buried then he would surely have laughed off Warbeck's outlandish claims. Likewise, Elizabeth of York would surely have been among the first to try to get to the bottom of what happened, and she'd been living in London throughout Richard III's reign and would have been privy to any gossip about her brothers. As far as is known, Elizabeth and Warbeck never met - which is either very interesting or very uninteresting, depending on your point of view, as she would have undoubtedly been the best surviving witness to the brother she grew up with, and her reaction would likely have told Henry all he needed to know. (Conversely, although Edward V and Elizabeth would have been acquainted, they were not close as Edward grew up in Ludlow as Prince of Wales).

If you're not up to speed on the Simnel and Warbeck uprisings then they're well worth reading about. There's no firm evidence either way, and both Richard III and Henry VII had a lot of incriminating documents destroyed (including, I imagine, documents we don't know existed), and of course the Tudors were pretty well-versed in PR. Lewis' view is that the Tudors put a definite spin on what actually happened, and tried to muddy the waters of the Simnel uprising by having him be a pretender to Warwick rather than Edward V, and that the treatment of Warbeck - which included facial disfigurement and a forced confession - seems very strange; as does the fact that Warbeck and Warwick were executed together after an alleged escape attempt.

Of course, it may well be that none of this is important and that the boys did indeed die in 1483. We know that workmen digging in the Tower during the 17th century found the skeletons of two children, but they have never been DNA tested and there's no way to prove whether they are the remains of the princes or not.

What do you think happened? For me, the main problems with the 'Richard III is innocent' theory are:

a) we know Richard killed plenty of people on his way to the throne (Rivers, Grey and Hastings for sure; potentially Henry VI and his son before that) so why not two more?;
b) we know that a lot of people assumed (or knew?) the princes were already dead by 1483;
c) why would Henry Tudor make an oath to marry Elizabeth of York and unite the houses if her brothers are still alive?;
d) if Richard had kept them alive, what did he do with them? where did they go? (possible scenarios: John Evans theory, Richard smuggled abroad/Warbeck theory)
e) what was the October 1483 Buckingham rebellion about? did he turn against Richard because the boys were dead, or did the boys have to die because of such rebellions?

I acknowledge that the claims of people like Lewis and Langley are fascinating and richly-drawn, but I also think the most boring and logical explanation is the most likely: Richard had them killed, and they're the two skeletons found in the 17th century. I do think there are important questions about related events and people's motives, but I also think that if Richard was willing to murder his brother's in-laws and best friend then he'd no qualms about killing his sons if that meant a more secure hold on the throne. Whereas I wouldn't be overly surprised if any of the other theories turns out to be what actually happened (seeing as we lack so little concrete evidence in any direction), I do think it seems likely that the general consensus was that they were dead by the autumn of 1483, as Buckingham's rebellion and the behaviour of the women at court moving towards a Tudor alliance suggests that their hopes now rest with Elizabeth's claim rather than the princes'.

Any thoughts?

I tend to think that the sequence of events required to make them the real princes is just far less probable than a simple killing. Why would Richard keep them around and how did they get out?

The surving princes narrative is also just a bit to romantic for me to be confortable with it. While escape and survival stories abound, the sad simple reality is that brutal murder is a far more common experience in these sorts of scenarios.

Why would X person do Y action, as the primary argument for a theory, also tends to underpin so many fringe theories. Claiming that people had specific motivations that made them do (or not do) certain actions and then asserting that therefore that was the action they took is an unprovable argument. An example of that is the argument that 'Lincon must have believed Simnel was genuine otherwise why would he have layed aside his own claim?' This argument ignores all the reasons why a noble might prefer another candidate rather than his own claim, even if he knows (or suspects) that the candidate is not actually who they claim they are, or the simple possiblity that he might be fooled by a good imposter.
 
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Richard's wife had passed away and he had sworn not to remarry - which left the question of the succession very perilously up in the air. So I can see him wanting to keep 'an heir and a spare' around.

I've never been convinced that Richard ordered the princes killed. I think it is more likely that some subordinate did what he thought the boss wanted done, or that the princes died of some illness and the scandal had to be covered up.

But, if Richard did take the crown himself because he feared the instability a very young king (and regency council) would bring, then perhaps he was able to order the two young boys done away with. Sadly, we do not have any credible information and it seems unlikely we will ever have any.

If someone could disinter the bones found in the Tower, who could they be compared to?
 
Richard's wife had passed away and he had sworn not to remarry - which left the question of the succession very perilously up in the air. So I can see him wanting to keep 'an heir and a spare' around.

I've never been convinced that Richard ordered the princes killed. I think it is more likely that some subordinate did what he thought the boss wanted done, or that the princes died of some illness and the scandal had to be covered up.

But, if Richard did take the crown himself because he feared the instability a very young king (and regency council) would bring, then perhaps he was able to order the two young boys done away with. Sadly, we do not have any credible information and it seems unlikely we will ever have any.

If someone could disinter the bones found in the Tower, who could they be compared to?
As Richard declared the princes illegitimate in order to usurp the throne it would be very awkward to turn around and make them his heirs. Either they were not bastards, and Richard had no right to the throne, or they were bastards and could not inherit. As for who the bones could be compared to, there is always Richard himself or their parents as their burial place is known.
 
Yeah, I think it likely that the boys died in the Tower. But... being declared illegitimate didn't stop several English monarchs from rising to the throne. Elizabeth I, for one. Logic and consistency have never been a strong point for royalty.

I didn't think there was enough left of Richard for a clear DNA sample. If so, then yeah - that'd work.
 
I didn't think there was enough left of Richard for a clear DNA sample. If so, then yeah - that'd work.
There was. That is part of how the identity of his bones were confirmed:

 
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There was. That is part of how the identity of his bones were confirmed:

Could these DNA testing methods in theory be used to identify the princes as well?

If (as at times rumoured) Edward IV was himself illegitimate, would mDNA from his children still point to a match with Richard III? If this method, presuming the match would be from Cecily rather than Richard of York, is usable, then the two small skeletons that are officially presumed to be the princes could at least plausibly be tested, as the hope would be that they'd be a match for Richard III's skeleton.

Of course this all depends that a) the princes were themselves Edward IV's biological children (most probably), and b) that the remains being tested are indeed the princes.

In theory, Warbeck's skeleton (if it is ever identified) could potentially also be tested.

Thank you for the link, it's very interesting.
 
Could these DNA testing methods in theory be used to identify the princes as well?

If (as at times rumoured) Edward IV was himself illegitimate, would mDNA from his children still point to a match with Richard III? If this method, presuming the match would be from Cecily rather than Richard of York, is usable, then the two small skeletons that are officially presumed to be the princes could at least plausibly be tested, as the hope would be that they'd be a match for Richard III's skeleton.

Of course this all depends that a) the princes were themselves Edward IV's biological children (most probably), and b) that the remains being tested are indeed the princes.

In theory, Warbeck's skeleton (if it is ever identified) could potentially also be tested.

Thank you for the link, it's very interesting.

IF we have good enough DNA from Richard III and good enough DNA from the skeletons then it should be fairly straightworward to identify the prices, if they are related to RIchard. As I understand it, the last time this idea was brought up, Queen Elizabeth and the Church of England did not allow the bodies to be dug up. Maybe Charles will have a different opinion.
 
Could these DNA testing methods in theory be used to identify the princes as well?

If (as at times rumoured) Edward IV was himself illegitimate, would mDNA from his children still point to a match with Richard III? If this method, presuming the match would be from Cecily rather than Richard of York, is usable, then the two small skeletons that are officially presumed to be the princes could at least plausibly be tested, as the hope would be that they'd be a match for Richard III's skeleton.

Of course this all depends that a) the princes were themselves Edward IV's biological children (most probably), and b) that the remains being tested are indeed the princes.

In theory, Warbeck's skeleton (if it is ever identified) could potentially also be tested.

Thank you for the link, it's very interesting.
mDNA comes from the mother, so Edward's genes wouldn't come into it. They'd be comparing to Elizabeth Woodville's mDNA anyway. Y-chromosomes come from the male line, which is what was compared to Richard.
Yeah, I think it likely that the boys died in the Tower. But... being declared illegitimate didn't stop several English monarchs from rising to the throne. Elizabeth I, for one. Logic and consistency have never been a strong point for royalty.

I didn't think there was enough left of Richard for a clear DNA sample. If so, then yeah - that'd work.
Difference is that Elizabeth's legitimacy or lack-there-of didn't affect Mary or Edward VI's claims to the throne; they were senior to her however you sliced it (unless you went by the version of Henry's will that had Mary illegitimate but Elizabeth legitimate, which nobody did by that point).

On the other hand, Richard's claim to the throne depends on them being illegitimate. If they are legitimate, then they are the rightful Yorkist claimants ahead of Richard (and a much more logical candidate for anti-Richard opposition forces than the remote and dubious Lancastrian claims of Henry Tudor).

Besides, his wife didn't die until 1485 (just a few months before he did) and their son was still alive until 1484, so he presumably was still planning on a normal succession of heirs of his body at the time he had the Princes offed. The fact that he failed to produce them when rumors of their murder started circulating (which happened by the end of 1483) is pretty good evidence they were dead by that point.

It's also worth remembering (for all the "oh, these Yorkists would never have acknowledged a false claimant") that most of the Yorkists hadn't seen the Princes in years, and we know that they happily supported Lambert Simnel's claims to be Edward, Earl of Warwick (which were certainly false, and note that Henry did produce the real Edward at that point to discredit them, something Richard had been unable to do).
 
Hard to survive being murdered.
 
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On the other hand, Richard's claim to the throne depends on them being illegitimate. If they are legitimate, then they are the rightful Yorkist claimants ahead of Richard (and a much more logical candidate for anti-Richard opposition forces than the remote and dubious Lancastrian claims of Henry Tudor).
Certainly. Henry Tudor was the last, forlorn hope of the Lancastrian party. The posthumous son of a half-brother to a king (on the female side, the result of the queen-widow screwing around with a minor courtier) who married a dubious claimant in the female line before dying young. His uncle, Jasper Tudor, gained influence as a trusted relative without a claim of his own. Henry's weak claim only came into play when every serious Lancastrian candidate had died. The weakness of Henry's claim adequately explains his nervousness about any and all other claimants. Even imposters, as he was only barely better than one himself.

When Henry won the battle of Bosworth against all expectation, the Yorkists were in their turn left without serious claimants. Richard III couped and murdered his nephews, saw his own son die young, then fell on the field of battle. George, duke of Clarence, having been attainted, the earl of Warwick was officially out of the running. (He could have tried to reverse his line's fortune but Henry VII prudently disposed of him before he could take action.) John de la Pole's mother certainly had a better claim than Henry VII's mother but it was still one in the female line, not so strong that his party could be relied on to support it after a comprehensive defeat. He resurrected a murdered prince because he stood a better chance of rallying support for the Yorkist cause with a male line candidate, and could easily dispose of him as an imposter after defeating Henry.
 
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Why would Richard keep them around and how did they get out?
They were freed by members of the Percy family, who were Yorkists by nature, but had enough influence to get them out of the tower and away to Europe.
The surving princes narrative is also just a bit to romantic for me to be comfortable with it.
I find the Lancastrian propaganda version far more fantastical. Not once, but twice, obscure fraudsters were able to raise mercenary armies on the continent and attempt to invade England?

I'm not going to be able to provide you with a comprehensive link, but the woman who found Richard III's remains in a Leicester car park has unearthed some significant documentary evidence, including a leger entry for the payment of mercenaries on behalf of one of the princes, and an authenticated account of their escape to Europe. Forgive me for the vague details, but I saw this some months ago in a documentary on UK TV, and last time I checked, there didn't seem to be any sort of write-up of the facts available on the internet. I'll check again though... watch this space.

Edit: Don't know if this will work in all locations, but here's a link to the documentary I was talking about...


The format of the programme is a little odd, with a lawyer/ TV judge examining the evidence, but the documents themselves are quite compelling.
 
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They were freed by members of the Percy family, who were Yorkists by nature, but had enough influence to get them out of the tower and away to Europe.
The Percys had been diehard Lancastrians for essentially all of the Wars of the Roses and had only made peace with the Yorkists after the death of Henry VI and the apparent complete of the Lancastrian cause. Indeed, their feud with the Yorkist Nevilles had been a key factor in triggering the wars in the first place.
I find the Lancastrian propaganda version far more fantastical. Not once, but twice, obscure fraudsters were able to raise mercenary armies on the continent and attempt to invade England?
Fake pretenders raising armies by claiming to be folks who died/disappeared in childhood was actually extremely common. For a famous example, consider that a little over a century later in otherwise similar circumstances, Russia went through at least 3 folks claiming to be the murdered Prince Dmitri (and, for later ones, the murdered previous false Dmitris), while the Byzantines went through multiple folks claiming to be people like Alexios II (backed by either Turks or Sicilians, as appropriate) and for another roughly contemporary western European example, there was at least one pretender claiming to be the real John I of France (who had died as an infant).

Especially given that Lambert Simnel and Perkin Warbeck were clearly different people from each other (and may not have even claimed to be a Prince in the Tower), so even by your account, at least one obscure fraudster was able to raise an army.
I'm not going to be able to provide you with a comprehensive link, but the woman who found Richard III's remains in a Leicester car park has unearthed some significant documentary evidence, including a leger entry for the payment of mercenaries on behalf of one of the princes, and an authenticated account of their escape to Europe. Forgive me for the vague details, but I saw this some months ago in a documentary on UK TV, and last time I checked, there didn't seem to be any sort of write-up of the facts available on the internet. I'll check again though... watch this space.

Edit: Don't know if this will work in all locations, but here's a link to the documentary I was talking about...


The format of the programme is a little odd, with a lawyer/ TV judge examining the evidence, but the documents themselves are quite compelling.
Philippa Langley is not a historian, she's an obsessive hobbyist who is determined to present Richard III as a perfect saint and ignore all evidence to the contrary (of which, the fact that he indisputably usurped his nephew's throne, then had them confined to the Tower where they subsequently disappeared and he was unable to produce them later to counter documented rumors of their murder is pretty irrefutable). There's a reason they went with a lawyer/TV judge examining the evidence, rather than a real historian of the period; basically no reputable historian finds her claims credible.
 
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The Percys had been diehard Lancastrians for essentially all of the Wars of the Roses and had only made peace with the Yorkists after the death of Henry VI and the apparent complete of the Lancastrian cause. Indeed, their feud with the Yorkist Nevilles had been a key factor in triggering the wars in the first place.
I wouldn't go that far... The Percy/Neville feud happened in parallel, and the Percys' allegiance pretty much depended on who the alignment of the Nevilles, but you're right, I misspoke rather*. However, at the time in question, the Percys were at least nominally aligned with Richard III, even if they famously failed to live up to this at the crucial moment.

*Actually I confused myself, because these events would obviously have happened before the death of Richard III... it took the Percys a little time to gain the favour of the Beaufort usurper, and my mind was in that period, for some reason.
Especially given that Lambert Simnel and Perkin Warbeck were clearly different people from each other (and may not have even claimed to be a Prince in the Tower), so even by your account, at least one obscure fraudster was able to raise an army.
Yes, they were two different people... and there were two princes. I don't understand your confusion on this point.
Philippa Langley is not a historian, she's an obsessive hobbyist who is determined to present Richard III as a perfect saint and ignore all evidence to the contrary (of which, the fact that he indisputably usurped his nephew's throne, then had them confined to the Tower where they subsequently disappeared and he was unable to produce them later to counter documented rumors of their murder is pretty irrefutable). There's a reason they went with a lawyer/TV judge examining the evidence, rather than a real historian of the period; basically no reputable historian finds her claims credible.
Well, look, you can take this snooty attitude if you must, but the historians did this before she found the remains of Richard III, and they continue to denigrate her, even though she was completely vindicated in that case. I find her Ricardism (?) a little odd, but I find it impossible to fault the work she has done on researching the princes' exile... spending years trawling through archives and medieval ledgers, almost like a 'proper historian'.

Have you even seen the programme I posted? My opinion is based entirely on the documentary evidence, which I find completely compelling, and you fail to mention at all.
 
Yes, they were two different people... and there were two princes. I don't understand your confusion on this point.
Problem is that they both claimed to be the same prince: Richard. In the case of Lambert Simnel that was later changed to pretending to be the Earl of Warwick (based on a rumor that the real Warwick was dead while in reality he was still imprisoned in the Tower at the time).

So Lambert Simnel being a pretender really isn't in question. That doesn't prove that the other prince wasn't legit but it does prove that the Yorkists would raise a rebellion for a fraud at least once.
 
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