Conquest of China shouldn't be possible in 1600s!

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grisamentum

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Ok, lets do it.

it's pointless. he has his conclusion. if he thinks he can just continually buy food for 30-50k soldiers in malacca, and feed them for a year at sea before they even get there, there's no point in arguing with him.

i mean, it would be easier than a land war in siberia. so therefore it must be possible. right?
 

Jomini

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1. This is again an example of "want" vs "can". If you look at the actual numbers needed to take the last Peten holdouts, we are talking about under 2,000 soldiers. The problem was much that these were cities deep in the tropical jungle with no gold. The Spaniards were actually in the middle of taking out much of the place when Pizarro made the news with fabulous amounts of wealth being captured further south. Shockingly both the soldiers on the ground and the administration in Spain were more concerned with getting silver from the Andes than marginal (to Spanish eyes) agricultural land in central America. Even if we treble every Spanish number from the final battles, Spain at any time could have taken just about any of the holdouts. Like with China, this is conquest that is far more expensive (in the short term) than it is worth (in the short term). Hence why it was generally not even a tertiary front.

2. The American Revolution lacks any real impetus to switch from the American to the British side. No matter how much the Americans and the British ground each other down, no one seriously expected there to be death and killing on the home front. Put another way, the only military powers like to go home to kill the woman and children were already allied to the British. In contrast, when the Manchu invaded China if you keep fighting as a Ming general you run the very real risk of another horde, Japan or someone from southeast Asia coming in and taking your power and killing your family. Likewise, in the American Revolution collective punishment was a net plus for the Americans; Britain couldn't control the hinterland so mass reprisals mean that the rebels have a rally point for counter reprisals - against your loyalists. It is also fairly hard to claim to be the civilized Christian nation if you are killing civilized Christians. A further difference would be that the British were unable to sustain the victories like those seen in India (or later in China) that comes from having a decided artillery advantage. British victories were tactically significant, but they lacked any form of shock and awe - there is no sense of inevitability (particularly as the British supplied a regular dose of American victories). Another major problem is that the colonies had one of the highest agricultural surpluses in the known world per capita, this makes them wealthy, mostly freeholders, and well armed; when Chinese irregulars attack during the Opium war they are armed with spears that the Song said were obsolete - when American irregulars attack they might well be better armed than the British (given the high number of rifles used in the war). Lastly, the colonies had no possibility of a decapitation strike. Unlike in China, there was no centralized state. Taking Philadelphia, for instance, doesn't deprive the Americans of a bunch of mandarins necessary for tax collection, conscription, and judiciary services. Taking the capital of China would mean that a lot of empire wide management simply ceases to happen and with a bunch of peasants and serfs you end up with some very powerful symbolic gains.

On a more direct note, up until the French entered the War, the British were doing pretty well (albeit expensively) and might well have worn the Americans down to a negotiated peace. However, like in the case of China, France represents a real threat (so Britain cannot tie down the entire navy for naval support) before entry and a mass diversion of resources after the war. Ultimately, the war falters for the same reason China wasn't invaded - the intervention of competing European powers pretty much assures that it ends up being a losing cost:benefit outcome.

3. This is after the Napoleonic revolution and where army sizes drastically outstripped the ability of the land to feed them. If you look at the land actually held by the British, you find that there isn't a hope in hell of supplying the men off the ground. Likewise, rates of fire had crept up high (particularly with the Enfields) and bullets stopped being simple cast lead jobs. All of things that don't apply to EU era logistics start coming to the fore here. The total manpower deployed in Crimea is vastly beyond what could be fed if you ate everything edible off the lead. The weight of powder and manufacturer shot starts being a big logistical burden, and warfare changes. These changes will become even more obvious in the American Civil War, but the days of armies living off the land, buying/capturing bulk supplies from the enemy are pretty gone everywhere east of Persia.

As with the American revolution, you don't have an advantage of repetitive victories and you certainly don't have any other external threats facing the Russian commanders.

4. Sorry, but a war with machine guns and rail logistics is completely noncomparable. When I talk about logistics in the EU era I am talking about an era when a large body of well armed men can survive by pillaging the countryside for food, recasting lead for their ammunition, and using relatively small amounts of powder during brief quick engagements. By the Boer war, the logistical burden per soldier isn't remotely like that for the 17th century (indeed the logistical burden for a 17th century soldier is closer to that of a Roman soldier than a khaki limey in the veldt).

1. That no major power could project and supply more than a few thousand troops (under 10k) to the far east until the Victorian era. As the mightiest naval power in 1775 could only land 60k men of a around 250-300k one month from home. The amount moved 6-10 months away to China would be even less.
As I have always maintained, this stems in large part because Britain would have to commit a lot of resources to move more. For a hypothetical Chinese invasion Britain would spend a huge portion of its budget for a decade building sealift (hence why I dropped all capital costs from my calculations) and that means it forgoes a lot of opportunities. When 1776 came around Britain hadn't even paid off the Seven Years War debt and that meant they were operating with far fewer hulls than would be the case if they could safely ignore the French. I have consistently said that any Chinese invasion would require nigh unto complete isolation from European power struggles - time to build the hulls, manpower to send the army away, and not having the possibility of French moves looming over your head.

None of these limitations had anything to do with logistics. The British garrisoned New York with huge numbers and only when marching into the interior did those 60K. The fact is, what do you burn more of to go from New York to China? Sure you have more hull-time, more food, more pay ... but none of those are insurmountable - just cost ineffective. The only times I aware of a British expedition hitting logistical snags where either deep inland or when the French closed the Chesapeake.

2. The total conquest would probably take a long time and require a massive troop commitment. During the American revolution the ratio of combatant to hostile populace was about 1 to 20, while the Boer War saw ratios far under 1 to 10, not to mention other personnel. I believe any number over 1 to 100 is unfeasible. That would result in over about 150k men, around the amount of land troops that France and England struggled to supply in 1850, a mere three weeks from home.
Sorry, but no. During the second Battle of Canton we saw what the Chinese peasantry could bring to war - agricultural implements, fire hardened spears, and decrepit edged weapons. In Lexington we saw what American freeholders could bring to war - rifles and muskets. The force multiplier between the two was historically on the order of 50 or so. If we go to the Boer war, this get even crazier, the Boers did import a lot of explosives and machine guns. Given the chattal nature of Boer society, of course the populace was well armed and well versed in weapons use.

Both of these also occurred in situations where it was not possible to put down rebellions with wholesale slaughter. While many Boers died in confinement, the days of being able to torch their homes, their fields, and then leave them to simply die were gone. The very fact that you had camps instead of genocide shows that the constraints on occupying troops in this era were much stricter and inhibited rebellion suppression. In both the American Revolution and the Boer War you had committed peace parties that could and did use any "atrocity" to gain power in the commons. None of that is going to matter a whit in China a century earlier.

As far as Russia, sorry, but that wasn't even a war of conquest. Britain wanted to take Sevastpol to force Russia to make peace with the OE. One of the British war goals was not to splinter the Russian state.

3. Winning nearly every battle and taking every major city does not always win a war. The American revolution held out despite a long string of defeats a naval blockade and most major cities lost. A committed china faced with the end of its civilization could manage similar feats. To ensure total victory you need to be able to commit substantial amounts troops as the British did in the Second Boer war and totally control the population.
Oh please. China would never have been facing "the end of its civilization". The Europeans invade, they either make a puppet emperor, or they depose the emperor. They find local power brokers who will collect the taxes and enforce the law (with European oversight) and the vast, vast majority of the population will live life pretty much exactly like before. I mean really, do you expect China to react that differently to a European invasion than to the Taiping rebellion? We saw the old Confucian texts banned. We saw the marriage laws changed. We saw mass eviction of landlords and a complete change in the mandarin class. Yet the place didn't devolve into an apocalyptic do or die scenario - it was a fairly normal peasant rebellion.

The real reason the US was virtually unique in being able to lose so many cities is that the vast, vast majority of its wealth wasn't located in the cities. If you look at per capita animal stock, the US had insane amounts - most of it inland. Of all countries on the earth at the time, the United States had the least wealth and power concentrated in the cities. In contrast, the exact opposite is true in China. In the hinterland there is very, very little wealth (outside the land itself). Taking the cities really does hammer the state apparatus (which was almost nonexistant in a lot of the colonies) and really does give the invader the block of the wealth and power. Peasant economies tend to be like that.

I would also like to put forward Kenneth E. Bouldings, Loss of Strength Gradient. He argued that the amount of a nation’s military power that could be brought to bear in any part of the world depended on geographic distance. The Loss of Strength Gradient demonstrated graphically that the farther away the target of aggression, the less strength could be made available.
Distance is more properly measured in time. In the modern (excluding ICBMs and transcontinental aircraft) and ancient eras, geographic distance and time to target were well related quantities. This changes right at the beginning of the EU era (though arguably earlier). Prior to the EU era, shipping large bodies of manpower isn't viable (with the Ming being an exception due to the treasure fleet) so most long distance campaigns (e.g. the Crusades) meant that you marched to the target and distance/time were pretty much equivalent. However, armies that were faster (e.g. the Mongols) suffered far less diminuation with distance. In the EU era, you finally see the development of mass bulk shipping which can move large armies great distances. This results in Oceanic distances being compressed (you might be able to cover 200 miles in a day on ship compared to 10 on land) when you measure by time. As noted by the previously quoted shipping rates, distances are also vastly cheaper to transverse thanks to better seafaring technology. The modern era loses this relative compression. While you can still move bulk manpower quickly on the ocean, now it becomes a non-trivial task to move food, ammunition, supplies (e.g. fuel), and equipment (e.g. artillery) in sufficient quantity. In the EU era, your tonnage was defined by the number of troops you carried, the mass of their weapons, and the food they'd consume until you reached the target - everything after that was had from forage, purchase, and capture. Post EU era your tonnage had all that, plus the weight of food at the target (varies by time on target), ammunition replacement (varies by engagement size, frequency, and length), fuel (is royal pain in the arse as you get rocketry equations), and everything spirals out quicker than tonnage can increase (which is saying something given that this is the steam revolution). On land you have a huge compression. Not only do you have the widespread adoption of canals but you start getting rail. Rail means you move scads of manpower long distance faster than you can march them by far. Rail means you move from the energy density of horses and oats to coal (well over a factor of 100 more efficient). In a nutshell, the modern era means that distance at sea stops being a zero order problem and becomes a first/second order one while land stops being a second order problem and becomes a first order one.

Yeah going to China is harder than going to India regardless of the era ... but EU is pretty much the golden age of sea power (at least until the airplane and the ballistic missile). Going huge distances "just" requires a huge upfront investment in hulls (one few nations were willing to risk) and once you get to the target your soldiers don't need long logistical tails. Both before and after the EU era, technology changes that.
 

Jomini

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it's pointless. he has his conclusion. if he thinks he can just continually buy food for 30-50k soldiers in malacca, and feed them for a year at sea before they even get there, there's no point in arguing with him.

i mean, it would be easier than a land war in siberia. so therefore it must be possible. right?

It would be easier than a French invasion of central Russia to Moscow.

Why can't you feed them at sea - which of the numbers already posted do you dispute? The poundage per day per soldier I quoted from van Creveld? The tonnage of ships pulled any ships registry of the era? The transit time pulled from actual schedules travelling comparable distances (this will very greatly by the year for the reasons mtier noted, but we still aren't talking impossible numbers of ships at the earliest dates)? The number of hulls needed to transport the food derived from multiplication?

And would it be happier for you we had the ships stop in Zanzibar to restock food (having had merchants secure the food two years before the fleet's arrival)?

Could you please try to contribute to the discussion in a substantive manner. I know useless one liners are more your style.

We already know it is possible to feed 30,000 people while transiting the Indian ocean and restock in Southeast Asia. Because Zheng he did it (well he only managed 28,000 people). Sumatra -> Ceylon -> Maldives -> Mogadishu.

Feeding thousands of people at sea is not an impossibility! Okay?


Seriously, this is the best you could do? You keep bandying about astronomical figures and get up in my face when I say I haven't seen historical evidence of more than 150,000 effectives. So you post a battle with 160,000. With two different states (and two different mobilization regimes). From wikipedia.

Or perhaps I could just quote Battles That Changed History: An Encyclopedia of World Conflict: "The Sino-Manzhu forces probably numbered 50,000 Manzhus and 40,000 Chinese. Wu may have been able to raise upwards of another 80,000 in local Chinese militias, but there is no proof they participated in the battle."

And every Ming battle is like that. We have a heckuvalot of numbers thrown around, but we you look at battle sights, they just around big enough for both the numbers and the maneuvers described. Hence why most historians have tended to discredit the numbers put forth by retrospectives.


But exactly which point does this change, these extra 10,000 troops? Come on, people are talking about 10:1 or worse ratios against 30,000 invasion troops. Can't you find me one campaign that mobilized 300,000 (though 600,000 would be more like what most people imply in this thread).
 

Novacat

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Seriously, this is the best you could do? You keep bandying about astronomical figures and get up in my face when I say I haven't seen historical evidence of more than 150,000 effectives. So you post a battle with 160,000. With two different states (and two different mobilization regimes). From wikipedia.

Considering that those two different states became Qing, thats not really a difficult assertion. 60,000 was not even the whole of Manchu's army, considering that they fielded 100,000 in their takeover of Korea.

Or perhaps I could just quote Battles That Changed History: An Encyclopedia of World Conflict: "The Sino-Manzhu forces probably numbered 50,000 Manzhus and 40,000 Chinese. Wu may have been able to raise upwards of another 80,000 in local Chinese militias, but there is no proof they participated in the battle."

Source says 170,000 troops fielded, than throws in an unverifyable assumption by claiming that theres no 'proof' that those 80,000 militia were not fielded. Considering this fails the common sense test, as why would Wu raise 80,000 militia and then do absolutly nothing with them, I would take that source with a large pinch of salt.

But exactly which point does this change, these extra 10,000 troops? Come on, people are talking about 10:1 or worse ratios against 30,000 invasion troops. Can't you find me one campaign that mobilized 300,000 (though 600,000 would be more like what most people imply in this thread).

Except you are seriously overestimating what your beloved European ubermensch were capable of. Europeans never, ever got into direct engagements with large, foreign empires. Both India and Aztecs were brought down by enlisting native help before the first shots were even fired.
 

Jomini

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Considering that those two different states became Qing, thats not really a difficult assertion. 60,000 was not even the whole of Manchu's army, considering that they fielded 100,000 in their takeover of Korea.
Actually it is. The Manchu are operating off a steppe horde system wherein every male serves the "military". Most of their economic production came from pillaging the Ming. This is great for amassing a huge war host, it is pretty crappy for administering an empire (you know now that you own the cities, pillaging them isn't a great way to fund an army).



Source says 170,000 troops fielded, than throws in an unverifyable assumption by claiming that theres no 'proof' that those 80,000 militia were not fielded. Considering this fails the common sense test, as why would Wu raise 80,000 militia and then do absolutly nothing with them, I would take that source with a large pinch of salt.
Actually no, sources say that Wu might have called up a bunch of peasant levies, not that he was actually did so. Again we do have numerous confirmed episodes of militia not responding to callup even though there were supposed to do so. To quote the second battle of Canton again, less than a fraction of the militia actually showed.



Except you are seriously overestimating what your beloved European ubermensch were capable of. Europeans never, ever got into direct engagements with large, foreign empires. Both India and Aztecs were brought down by enlisting native help before the first shots were even fired.
Europeans never had a period where they were free of other concerns. Yet once again, you confuse "poor cost efficiency" with "impossibility".

Real world Europe was constrained in their naval excursions by threats of invasion and wars of opportunity in Europe. In game, the other nations are crap at constraining the player, but if you do manage to get into a stable position where you don't face threats (e.g. Spain with France & Portugal as junior partners after a successful Armada allows you and your Scottish ally to cripple England) then it certainly is possible.

For the record, I'm the one arguing for universal rules that don't treat specially based on their origin. A westernized China that manages to overcome its internal difficulties and reacquire their lost naval technology should also be able to make big invasions (e.g. taking down Japan, India, or Arabia). Heck, if it has the naval tech, the hulls, and the ability, it should be able to invade England. I mean seriously, if the Europeans can take advantage of ahistorically passive neighbors, China should be able to take advantage of ahistorical technological advances.

Historically, China was constrained by a complete lack of interest in advancing bulk oceanic transport and a distinct lack of interest in mobilizing a great proportion of its manpower for warfare (not a bad call really, unless you want to expand for the hell of it). You, as the player, should be able to change that. You shouldn't be locked into "well China's exam system bred resentment and its army never fought so it was crap", you should (for an appropriate price, after an appropriate amount of time) be able to relaunch the Treasure Fleet and do exactly to Japan or India what Europe managed in India. Yeah, it doesn't make a whole lot of sense for China to go for manpower efficiency when it has buckets of manpower in the fields nor does bulk oceanic transport make a good investment when the obscenely vast bulk of your trade is riverine - but the point is the player should be able to make sacrifices and do things that were inefficient cost/benefit choices in history.

As has been shown in this thread, China can release vassals and then go on a curbstomping run and certainly you can overrun Japan or Arabia in completely ahistorical fashion. But nobody says "Chinese conquest of Arabia shouldn't be possible in 1600s". Me, I don't say it, because it is possible if you setup things correctly, for historical determinists (what didn't happen, couldn't happen), I can only conclude that you folks just think the Arabs are vastly weaker than the Chinese =P
 

deezee

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While I still believe conquest of China shouldn't be possible unless China is significantly destabilized, I think we're getting off the key point a bit. Even for those who believe that conquering China should be possible (and there are some valid arguments for why that may have been the case), I don't think anyone seriously believes that conquering China should be EASY; even for those who argue that Europe's military was sufficiently advanced for it to be possible, it would still be a massive undertaking in terms of the manpower and logistical resources needed. Yet that is the exact situation we face in the game.
I think the devs went a little overboard with reducing Chinese army's morale and discipline. Try a test: load up as China, build units until you hit the bureaucrat faction's force limit, and then switch the temple faction and go to war. You'll find that it's actually quite a challenge for China to win in scenarios like facing Ayutthaya with a 3-1 numerical advantage (although admittedly in that case, they were defending hills).
From the perspective of gameplay, the best option is clearly to make a European conquest of China possible but difficult; even if it was impossible in real history, in makes for a better game if the player can do that. However, it should be a real accomplishment to do so. By contrast, what we see in game is a China that is such a pushover that AI Spain can conquer bits of it with units they sent to the Philippines to put down native revolts.
 

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While I still believe conquest of China shouldn't be possible unless China is significantly destabilized, I think we're getting off the key point a bit. Even for those who believe that conquering China should be possible (and there are some valid arguments for why that may have been the case), I don't think anyone seriously believes that conquering China should be EASY; even for those who argue that Europe's military was sufficiently advanced for it to be possible, it would still be a massive undertaking in terms of the manpower and logistical resources needed. Yet that is the exact situation we face in the game.
I think the devs went a little overboard with reducing Chinese army's morale and discipline. Try a test: load up as China, build units until you hit the bureaucrat faction's force limit, and then switch the temple faction and go to war. You'll find that it's actually quite a challenge for China to win in scenarios like facing Ayutthaya with a 3-1 numerical advantage (although admittedly in that case, they were defending hills).
From the perspective of gameplay, the best option is clearly to make a European conquest of China possible but difficult; even if it was impossible in real history, in makes for a better game if the player can do that. However, it should be a real accomplishment to do so. By contrast, what we see in game is a China that is such a pushover that AI Spain can conquer bits of it with units they sent to the Philippines to put down native revolts.

this was likely a result of imbalance in EU3, where china could reach western russia by the mid 1600s even when played by the AI (hence the massive nerfs to china in later eu3 patches). the devs seemed to have carried this thought process into EU4 as well when they decided to massively nerf china, even though in the 1400s to the 1600s, china was not that much weaker in comparison to european nations.
 

Jiiub

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my small input on this is simply that its hard to have fun playing as anything not western or eastern if you plan on warring :( because in the end you cant compete.

I really want to play as the hordes and trample Europe, thats impossible, I want to create a massive Chinese empire sprawling all the Eastern world.. impossible :/

Some form of balancing needs to be done to make these factions playable for a human player even if not for the AI.
 

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my small input on this is simply that its hard to have fun playing as anything not western or eastern if you plan on warring :( because in the end you cant compete.

I really want to play as the hordes and trample Europe, thats impossible, I want to create a massive Chinese empire sprawling all the Eastern world.. impossible :/

Some form of balancing needs to be done to make these factions playable for a human player even if not for the AI.

if you want to play china without the giant nerfs try the meiou and taxes mod. that mod is better at weakening china without the arbitrary and annoying factions system that the ming has to deal with in the original game. you could probably conquer a lot more as china in that mod.
 

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my small input on this is simply that its hard to have fun playing as anything not western or eastern if you plan on warring :( because in the end you cant compete.

I really want to play as the hordes and trample Europe, thats impossible, I want to create a massive Chinese empire sprawling all the Eastern world.. impossible :/

Some form of balancing needs to be done to make these factions playable for a human player even if not for the AI.

Please try Pax Sinica Mod. It is an on East Asia concentrated mod with many new events in Mongolia and China. :) In the next version you will claim celestial empire as asian countries.
 
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