Conditional Military Access

[Arinsar]

Here is the situation : I am playing Byzantium, just declared war on Venice. Hungary is rival to Venice and Bohemia (Venice and Bohemia are allies) so I am thining great since they wont let Bohemian army throught since they are friendly with me.... ofc THEY let both of their rivals throught because Ragusa is in trade league with Venice... seriously ? I mean for real this is most retarded mechanics. Country lets two of their rivals throught becouse it gives miliatary access to some other country who is part of the war... can someone explain logic of that mechanics ?

 

[Magnificent Genius]

It's to avoid an exploit that used to exist where you could park your army in a place where you had access but your enemies didn't.

So now if someone gives access to one party in a war, everyone gets access.

 

[Foefaller]

You can still take advantage of that sort of thing in certain edge cases to cut off your primary target's allies.

For a personal example, As Russia, I once attacked Poland-Lithuania Commonwealth, who was allied with France. France had just gotten off of a successful war with the HRE, so noone in the HRE was going to give them the time of day, much less military access. Since the Commonwealth and I could reach each other without asking anyone for access, neither of us asked Austria et al for access, so France was stuck in France giving me the freedom to focus on just beating the Commonwealth.

 

[Arinsar]

Let me clarify then : RAGUSA can reach me without having access throught Hungary and according to you its an exploit counting that rivals wont let each other armies throught their teritory (kind what you explect from countries which hate each other). Its bullshit AI system which asks for military access throught countries which they dont require to reach their war opponent (in my case ragusa could just ask ottomans but hey they ask hungary to their allies can go through)... for me this is an exploit or you can call it clever use of game mechanics by AI but in that case what is the point of military access system in the first place.

 

[Foefaller]

Can Ragusa reach ALL of your territory w/o calling in Hungary, or just some of it?

Also, would getting MA through Hungary allow them to reach areas they normally wouldn't be able to because of any forts?

A SS of the map would help.

 

[TheMeInTeam]

It's to avoid an exploit that used to exist where you could park your army in a place where you had access but your enemies didn't.

So now if someone gives access to one party in a war, everyone gets access.

Using a military access request to get military access is not and was not an exploit. Anyone who claims otherwise is mistaken, because such a claim is almost necessarily self-inconsistent. There are no coherent pre-set criteria you could set that would separate that tactic from others that remain in the game to this day.

Worse still, the scenario you describe still happens (multiple times per game, either I or my enemy can put troops in neutral territory that the other can't), only now its occurrence is arbitrary and annoying rather than predictable based on actual diplomatic relations.

 

[Arinsar]

Another example from 2nd war against Venice and their trade league:
Venice + trade league (for example Utrecht) + Bohemia (40k troops)
Bohemia Rivals : Austria . Hungary , Poland (so they wont give them military access).
Bohemia cant get to Byzantium lands except throught naval means ... guess what : Utrecht gets military access throught Hungary so Bohemia can walk throught Hungary because they have get "conditional military access), Basicly thanks to trade leagues rivals are saying will let anyone throught which is unrealistic as f.... (ofc i am still winning those wars because i use very REALISTIC tactic of trapping stacks on either Corfu or Naxos). But i guess its ok if country (Utrecht) which have 3k troops (which they dont even send to war) are gonna ask Hungary to let 40k Bohemian troops....